So, Abigail Adams was a little ballsy for a woman during the dawn of independence, wasn’t she? (Perfect form for a subsequent one-of-the-first First Ladies!) She writes this letter to husband John (in Philadelphia) on March 31, 1776 from Braintree (outside of Boston) soon after Boston’s been liberated from British rule. (I guess war makes a woman take a chance with her man!) In it, she touches on politics, gives news of the homefront and, finally, makes a plea for treatin’ the ladies proper. Just like many women I know, her tone changes with her desires: acquiescent to offhandedly objective, then upbeat to end with an in-your-face/tell it like it is rationality. She accomplishes this through incongruent syntax and unintentional? error. …show more content…
The litany of rhetorical questions -- ”where your Fleet are gone?” “what …Deference Virginia can make?” and “Are not common people vassals?” -- could establish an “I’m really interested in your job, and support everything you’re doing for this country” attitude BUT because they are essentially a part of the former sentence (she ended the “write more” line with a semi-colon) I feel like she might be badgering her husband. It’s as if she is waiting for answers. They are attached to her negative opening statement. (Ouch, you got burned,