ACT/SAT Test Preparation and Practice
Contents
What You Need to Know About the SAT Reasoning Test.................................................. SAT Critical Reading Practice 1 .......................................................................................... SAT Critical Reading Practice 2 .......................................................................................... SAT Critical Reading Practice 3 .......................................................................................... SAT Critical Reading Practice 4 .......................................................................................... SAT Critical Reading Practice 5 .......................................................................................... SAT Critical Reading Practice 6 .......................................................................................... What You Need to Know About the ACT Reading, English, and Writing Tests ............... ACT Reading Practice .......................................................................................................... ACT English Practice ........................................................................................................... ACT Writing Practice ........................................................................................................... 1 10 11 17 23 28 32 34 42 50 63
ACT/SAT Test Preparation and Practice
What You Need to Know About the SAT Reasoning Test
Structure of the Test
The SAT Reasoning Test measures critical thinking skills in three areas: Critical Reading, Math, and Writing. This workbook helps you to prepare for the Critical Reading and Writing sections of the test. The Critical Reading section measures how well you read sentences, paragraphs, and longer passages. The Writing section measures how well you correct errors, improve sentences and paragraphs, and compose an essay. The chart shows the number of questions in each section. All questions, except the essay, are multiple-choice.
Why Practice?
Practicing accomplishes two goals: you gain skill in answering questions, and you become familiar with the testing format and directions. Your increased skill and your familiarity with the test should improve your performance when you take the test. Before you practice, read this entire section, which explains how the test is set up. When you practice, take the test using the time limits given for each section. Are you able to complete the sections within the time limits? When you score the practice test, notice where you did well and where you did less well. Knowing your strengths will help you use them appropriately, just as seeing what you should work on will help you further prepare for the test.
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ACT/SAT Test Preparation and Practice
You may decide that you need more practice after you finish this workbook. Such practice is provided by the SAT Preparation Center, which may be reached at www. collegeboard.com/srp.
CRITICAL READING
The purpose of the Critical Reading test is to measure your ability to read typical college course materials. Each question has five possible answers. If you answer a question correctly, you get one point; if you answer incorrectly, one-quarter of a point is subtracted from your score. It’s a good strategy to guess on questions where you can eliminate at least one or two possible answers, but if all the choices seem equally attractive, you shouldn’t risk a guess.
Sentence Completions
In these questions, you choose the word or pair of words that best completes a sentence. Making the correct choice depends on using vocabulary skills and understanding the logic of the sentence. Try this example: Many invasive plant species were originally imported, rather than being ------- to the area. (A) intemperate (B) gratuitious (C ) noxious (D) indigenous (E) laudable The logic of the sentence shows that the missing word means the opposite of “imported.” A logical answer would be “native,” but “native” is not one of the choices. Look for a word whose meaning is similar to “native.” The word “indigenous” is the correct answer. If you know the meaning of indigenous, then it’s easy to select this choice. If you can’t find a word that means “native,” look at the possible choices, eliminating those that you know are incorrect. Then you can make an informed guess. Tips for Sentence Completions • Answer the sentence completion questions before the passage-reading questions since they take less time. • The questions appear in the order of difficulty. Easy questions are first, and hard questions are last. • If you skip a question, make a mark next to it in your test booklet. Then it will be easy to find if you have time to go back to it. Be sure that you also skip that item on your answer document so that you don’t mark your subsequent answers incorrectly. • When you read the question, try to complete the blank without looking at the choices. • Look for key words and phrases such as since, however, rather, and therefore. These words (and others similar to them) are essential clues to how a sentence should be completed. Preparing for Sentence Completions • Study vocabulary. Review any vocabulary lists you have made. • Read widely. Try covering up part of a sentence to predict what will follow.
ACT/SAT Test Preparation and Practice
Passage-based Reading
The length of the passages is between 100 and 850 words; the content is drawn from the natural sciences, the social sciences, the humanities, and literary fiction. In some cases, two passages on a similar issue appear together. The passages vary in style and are generally similar to materials students read in college. The questions following the passage test your understanding of its content. The questions cover not only significant information in the passage, but also conclusions to be drawn from that information. They may require your analysis of the author’s purpose, logic, techniques, and vocabulary as well. Thus, the questions are not asking you simply to find facts within the passage; they are asking you to grapple with its meaning and to make logical inferences about it. Here is a short sample passage followed by two questions: Few people can lay claim to the invention of a poetic form; far fewer have that form bear their name. Having created that form at the age of 16 is even more remarkable. Line The poetic form is the clerihew, and its creator was named Edmund Clerihew 5 Bentley. In a particularly boring chemistry class, Bentley amused himself by writing: Sir Humphrey Davy Abominated gravy. He lived in the odium 10 Of having discovered sodium. The clerihew is a quatrain, a poem of four lines, and has an aabb rhyme scheme. The first line consists of, or ends with, a person’s name, and the following lines supply some lighthearted biographical details. Designed to amuse rather than edify, the clerihew continues to be a worthwhile pastime in a tedious class. Sample Question 1 In line 12, the word “scheme” most nearly means (A) a diagrammatic representation (B) a systematic plan of action (C ) an underhanded or secret plan (D) a visionary project (E) an ordered pattern While all the choices are valid meanings of the word “scheme,” in the context of “an aabb rhyme scheme,” (E) is the correct choice because it is an ordered pattern of rhymes aa (Davy/gravy) and bb (odium/sodium). Sample Question 2 It seems reasonable to conclude that a clerihew is a form of (A) social commentary (B) diversion (C) instruction (D) emotional expression (E) autobiography
ACT/SAT Test Preparation and Practice
The passage describes the clerihew as being born “in a particularly boring chemistry class,” and it gives an example that is clearly meant to be entertaining. In addition, the passage notes that the clerihew’s purpose is “to amuse rather than edify.” Since the poetic form offered its author a brief diversion from a tedious class, (B) is the correct choice. Tips for Passage-based Reading • Read the passage fairly quickly to grasp its structure and its overall meaning. Then you will know where to look if you need to reread some sections in order to answer particular questions. • The order of the questions is related to the order of the passage. Questions about the first part of the passage appear first, followed by questions about later parts of the passage. The order of the questions is not related to their difficulty. Easy questions may follow hard ones, so don’t spend too much time on a particular question or get discouraged by its difficulty. You can make a mark next to it and return to it if time allows. Again, remember to allow for the skipped question on your answer document. • When the question gives a line reference, look at that line or lines. Questions about word meaning usually concern words with multiple meanings, as is demonstrated in the various meanings of “scheme” in Sample Question 1 above. To determine the meaning of the word, you must find its context in the line in which it appears and the lines surrounding it. Preparing for Passage-based Reading • Read widely. Passage topics are drawn from many areas, so wide reading gives you experience with a wide variety of topics and an array of writing styles. • Stretch yourself. Attempt to read books and articles outside your “comfort zone.” Don’t worry about understanding them completely; concentrate instead on getting the gist. • Ask yourself questions as you read. As you read a textbook, a novel, or a magazine article, ask yourself what the author intends and why the author used certain techniques. • Ask yourself what conclusions the author might expect the reader to reach. • Build your vocabulary through reading. When you come across an unfamiliar word or an unfamiliar meaning of a familiar word, write it down on an index card or in a notebook. Check the meaning in a dictionary, and then create your own sentence using the word. Make these words your own by using them in your conversation and in your writing. • Review what you have learned about writing techniques. Review the meanings of literary terms such as tone, metaphor, and imagery so that you know how to answer questions that use these terms.
WRITING
The three types of multiple-choice questions (Improving Sentences, Identifying Sentence Errors, and Improving Paragraphs) assess your understanding of writing correctly and effectively. The questions cover: • subject-verb and pronoun-referent agreement • correct sentence structure (avoiding run-ons, fragments, and faulty modification)
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ACT/SAT Test Preparation and Practice
• parallel structure • diction and idioms The essay question shows how well you can write a first draft in response to an assignment. Your draft is evaluated on the basis of both your thinking and your writing style. The teachers scoring your essay consider: • effective development of a point of view • clear organization and focus • use of appropriate language • varied sentence structure • correct grammar, usage, and mechanics
Improving Sentences
These questions challenge you to look at the sentence as a whole and decide how its meaning can be conveyed both correctly and effectively. The question presents a sentence with an underlined section, and you must find the best way to restate that section. (Note that the rest of the sentence remains the same.) Answer (A) always repeats the underlined section while the other choices present different ways of writing that section. The questions in this part of the test ask you to improve sentences by avoiding errors and eliminating awkwardness. This task resembles what you do when you revise the first draft of an essay or a report. The weaknesses in the sentences are typical of those found in student writing: wordiness, poor sentence structure, and ambiguity. To answer the question, read the sentence and decide if the underlined part should be revised. Think of how you would make the revision if one is needed. Then look at the answer choices to find one that matches your revision. Try this example: Alertness, short-term memory, not to mention the ability to solve problems, all tend to peak in the late morning, (A) not to mention the ability to solve problems, (B) and problem-solving ability (C) and how well we solve problems (D) and abilities in problem-solving situations (E) and having the ability to solve problems (B) is the correct answer. It eliminates wordiness and uses appropriate parallel structure. Tips for Improving Sentences • Look for problems in sentence structure. The underlined part may be a sentence fragment or may create a run-on sentence. • See if you can follow the sentence. If you can’t, then there may be a problem with the logic of the sentence. • Look for problems in the way the parts of the sentence fit together. • Look at the subject and the verb to be sure they agree. Do not be distracted by words between the subject and the verb. • Look for faulty parallelism, as shown in the sample question above.
ACT/SAT Test Preparation and Practice
Preparing for Improving Sentences • As you read, notice good sentences, especially those that present complicated thoughts in a clear way. • Skim essays and reports that you have written. Your teachers may have pointed out examples of errors or awkward wording—exactly the kinds of problems found in these questions. • When you write and when you revise your writing, try to find clear, concise ways to express yourself.
Improving Paragraphs
These questions are based on a draft of a short essay. Some questions deal with specific sentences in the essay, while others concern issues of organization and development. To answer these questions, skim the draft essay so that you understand its general meaning and purpose. Then answer each question. The order of the questions is based on the order of the passage rather than on the order of difficulty.
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ACT/SAT Test Preparation and Practice
Read the following sample essay. Then answer the question that follows it. (1) Choosing can be fun; for example, I like choosing which piece to take out of a box of chocolates. (2) Our choices help make us who we are. (3) If I keep choosing pieces of chocolate, I am choosing to be a larger person. (4) Choosing becomes difficult when the alternatives seem too close or the outcome is very important to us. (5) Choice can also be difficult when there are too many options. (6) A social scientist named Barry Schwarz studied shoppers who had a chance to sample different jams. (7) One group of shoppers had a choice of 6 different jams, the other a choice of 24 jams. (8) Schwarz found that 30 percent of the 6-choice shoppers used a coupon for jam, while only 3 percent of the 24-choice shoppers did. (9) Having too many choices can deter us from making any choice at all. (10) The Internet is a source of choices for many shoppers. (11) If a store confronts me with 348 possible pairs of jeans, I may be overwhelmed and leave empty-handed. (12) But it seems to me that it’s better to have too many choices than too few. (13) It’s quite possible that one of those 348 pairs of jeans will be the pair that fits me perfectly. Which of the following sentences should be omitted to improve the unity of the second paragraph? (A) Sentence 5 (B) Sentence 7 (C) Sentence 8 (D) Sentence 9 (E) Sentence 10 (E) is the correct answer. All the other sentences are related to the paragraph’s point about “too many choices.” The reference to the Internet is irrelevant, and eliminating the reference improves the paragraph. Tips for Improving Paragraphs • Read the draft essay carefully enough that you understand the gist of it. Remember that the essay provides the context for the questions. • An essay can be improved in many ways, but you are limited to the possible improvements in the answer choices. Preparing for Improving Paragraphs • If you have first drafts of some of your written work, look at comments by teachers and others who have helped you with editing. Look particularly for changes that improve the logic and coherence of a piece. • Write often. Practice in organizing and stating your ideas will prepare you to recognize the problems that commonly occur in first drafts.
The Essay
In this section, which appears first in the actual test, you will read a statement and be given an assignment. You will have 25 minutes to write an essay related to the assignment. Experienced high school teachers and college faculty members score all the essays. Scorers will be looking at how well you • develop your point of view • support your point of view with logic
ACT/SAT Test Preparation and Practice
Essay topics are specific, but they often concern large topics such as power, virtue, conflict, independence, and character. Think about these issues, and discuss them with your family and friends.
Tips for test day
Double-check that you have the materials you need: your Admission Ticket, an official photo ID, and some Number 2 pencils. Be sure you know the route to the test center. If you will be driving yourself, find out about parking locations and any fees. Plan to arrive at the center a little early. A good night’s sleep and a good breakfast can help you feel your best on test day.
SAT Critical Reading Practice 1
This essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively you can develop and express ideas. You should, therefore, take care to develop your point of view, present your ideas logically, and use language precisely.
Time—25 minutes
Think carefully about the issue presented below. Then read the assignment. A school is its own world. Every weekday morning, the school draws together people of diverse interests, backgrounds, needs, talents, and aspirations, and, in an ideal situation, these people work together in an environment that promotes active learning. Each person in that ideal environment should feel both safe and free. Yet the world of school is situated in the real world, and the real world is a place where many feel neither safe nor free.
Assignment: What must a school ensure for its students? How does a school balance the safety of the community with the freedom of each individual in it? At what point might there be conflicts between safety and freedom? Write an essay in which you consider the responsibilities of a school to its students. Support your position with clear examples drawn from your own experience or that of others, as well as from your reading, studies, discussions, and observations.
SAT Critical Reading Practice 2
Time—25 minutes 23 Questions Select the best answer for each question. Mark your response by filling in the correct circle on your answer sheet.
4. In the Declaration of Independence, Jefferson elevated the colonists’ grievances from a ------over the rights of English subjects to a struggle of universal importance. (A) petition (B) cataclysm (C) tract (D) dispute (E) speculation 5. In the early 19th century, sleepy villages of a few hundred people were ------- into ------- towns with thousands of inhabitants. (A) transformed . . bustling (B) demolished . . substantial (C) converted . . minimal (D) aggregated . . ulterior (E) depreciated . . comparative The passages below are followed by questions based on their content; questions following a pair of related passages may also be based on the relationship between the paired passages. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passages and in any introductory material that may be provided.
Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled (A) through (E). Choose the word or set of words that, when inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
EXAMPLE:
Before instruments can be used in a surgical ------- , they must be ------- . (A) operation . . authorized (B) intervention . . rotated (C) testimony . . verified (D) sediment . . regulated (E) procedure . . sterilized ABCD 1. The large distances that separate the prairies from the ------- effects of the ocean give this region the most extreme temperature range in North America. (A) humidifying (B) moderating (C) stultifying (D) vigorous (E) turbulent
Questions 6–7 are based on the following passage. 2. A problem that mapmakers face is that any attempt to project Earth’s curved surface on a flat plane Ozone is a form of oxygen; it consists of three inevitably produces ------- . oxygen atoms bound together. When methane interacts (A) distortions (B) caricatures with nitrogen oxides in the presence of sunlight, ozone (C) impediments (D) claimants Line is formed. Ozone’s effects on human health depend (E) antecedents 5 entirely on where the ozone is. Just as real estate values are all about “location, location, location,” so too the 3. With no votes cast against him, the candidate was impact of ozone depends where in the atmosphere it is. the ------- choice to fill the ------- on the board of Ozone in the stratosphere filters out harmful ultraviolet directors. radiation from the sun, thus shielding us from skin (A) contentious . . position 10 cancers. But closer to earth, ozone’s effects are negative, (B) perpendicular . . surplus exacerbating respiratory and cardiovascular problems. (C) unanimous . . vacancy (D) miscellaneous . . nomination (E) prefabricated . . shortage
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SAT Critical Reading Practice 2
6. The author most likely refers to “real estate values” in line 5 in order to (A) show the effect of ozone on these values (B) emphasize that ozone’s effects depend on its location (C) indicate that ozone levels are higher in poorer neighborhoods (D) warn that the thinning ozone layer means people should avoid sunbathing (E) highlight the economic costs and benefits of ozone 7. The paragraph discusses ozone’s effects on (A) property values (B) global warming (C) deforestation (D) human health (E) methane and nitrogen oxides Questions 8–9 are based on the following passage. It is almost impossible to see the mountain known as Mont Sainte-Victoire with fresh eyes. Our view of this 3,600-foot peak is inevitably shaped by the images created by the French painter Paul Cezanne. Cezanne, a native of nearby Aix-en-Provence, made over 80 pictures of the mountain, seeking to capture its threedimensional structure on two-dimensional canvas. An anecdote told about Pablo Picasso reveals a great deal about his fellow painter, Paul Cezanne, and Cezanne’s signature motif, Mount Sainte-Victoire. When Picasso bought the 15th-century castle at Vauvenargues located near Mount Sainte-Victoire, he told an acquaintance, “I have just bought the SaintVictoire by Cezanne,” “Which one?” he was asked. Picasso answered, “The original.” 8. In his reply, Picasso was referring to (A) the actual mountain (B) his own paintings of the mountain (C) Cezanne’s first painting of the mountain (D) recent photographs of the mountain (E) all the pictures Cezanne painted of the mountain 9. The author includes the anecdote about Picasso primarily to show (A) the relationship between the two painters (B) Picasso’s respect for Cezanne’s work (C) what Cezanne’s paintings looked like (D) how closely the mountain was linked to Cezanne (E) why Picasso chose to live at Vauvenargues
SAT Critical Reading Practice 2
Questions 10–15 are based on the following passage. The following passage, taken from an American novel published in 1957, describes events that take place after two half brothers, Randolph and Walter, are reunited after 14 years. At the time of the story, Walter is 17 years old. Randolph greeted Walter with as much genuine affection as he could muster. Even as estranged as the two had been, Randolph believed that there must be some way to help Walter rediscover that ancestral bridge that irrevocably connects the part of us which yearns to be alone—to break free—with the part of us that longs to be a part of a greater whole. Without this bridge, Randolph believed, we are each a fractured person, part headstrong adventurer, part lost and frightened child; a set of disconnected needs that never truly meld to one. Our true identity is born and our soul shines contentedly for all to see only in this connectedness. Whatever adversity we may face in our lives, we can face it from a fully balanced stance, not struggling to balance on merely one foot or the other, if we understand ourselves as individuals as well as part and partner to a larger whole. But it would be hard-going to reach Walter, and to let him know all this. Their father had gone to the last war, when Walter was just a baby, as Randolph had, and, unfortunately, he was lost in the din of the battlefield, caught offguard and unaware, when the enemy crept in on his troop from the air and from behind. When Walter was three, he lost his mother to grief and a weak heart that never mended right after being broken. Randolph was at college at Yale, and Walter was sent to live with his great aunt (their only other relative) in California. Years passed, and while Randolph made some attempts to connect with Walter (toys at Christmas, birthday greetings, a phone call now and then when he could find the time) it seemed easier to think less and less about his brother. Randolph was at first struggling to get through law school and, later, to secure a good position with a good firm, while Walter was growing up. His days and nights were filled with all manner of harried thoughts and pending assignments. For another thing (although Randolph would never admit it to another soul, not even himself) he was afraid that the sight of Walter would remind him of their father—whom
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Walter supposedly resembles so—and then of Randolph’s grief over his death. Now, finally, when Walter was practically a man, he’d come to live with Randolph while he attended college. For the first time, Randolph regretted his selfishness. Much to Randolph’s chagrin, Walter had grown up to be polite but distant towards him. Walter talked at length about his friends in California and how he missed them. He talked about his studies, and his intense interest in archeology. But something was missing, and Randolph knew it. There was an underlying sadness in Walter’s demeanor. More to the point, there seemed to be blank patches in his persona. Randolph could sense something was there, but somehow he simply could not fill the pieces in. As the days went by, Walter seemed intent upon behaving more like a polite houseguest than a younger brother. He made his bed with hospital corners every morning, and then again if he happened to doze off at midday. He kept his room spotless and impeccably tidy. He walked around the house as quietly as possible, as if on tip-toes almost, regardless of the time of day. He asked for permission to take a snack from the kitchen or to turn on the television. Walter completely dashed the ideas that Randolph had developed about modern teenagers from observing the boisterous, happy, and blithe children of his law partners and neighbors. But more to the point, Walter seemed intent on behaving as though he had no real feelings about his parents, or losing them at such a young age, although he always did speak kindly and respectfully of them. “My attitude is to live in the present,” Walter told Randolph once, “I simply cannot afford to spend much energy on a lot of sadness about things that can’t be changed, or asking questions that can’t be answered.” “But Walter,” Randolph replied, “perhaps you can have an even better life in the present if you know something more of your past, if you have an idea of the people you come from. Perhaps I can answer some of your questions, if you’ll let me.” “I appreciate all you’re trying to do for me,” answered Walter, “but all the same, I find it best to live in the present.”
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SAT Critical Reading Practice 2
10. The “ancestral bridge” noted in lines 4–5 should connect (A) caring and indifference (B) love and hate (C) individuals and families (D) hedonism and caution (E) disorder and stasis 11. The author uses the words “headstrong adventurer” and “lost, frightened child” in lines 9–10 to (A) distinguish between people whose personalities are whole and people whose personalities are not (B) describe the two extreme possible responses of those who face this type of situation (C) suggest it is impossible to reconcile these two sets of feelings (D) remind us of the difference between childhood and adulthood (E) show the emotional changes that this individual goes through, in time order 12. The aspect of Walter that Randolph seems to believe will make it hardest to reach him is Walter’s (A) fondness and preference for his friends in California over Randolph (B) overly intense interest in his studies (C) habit of behaving more like a polite houseguest than a teenaged brother (D) seemingly incomplete personality (E) need to walk around as quietly as possible 13. In line 47, the word “chagrin” most closely means (A) shock (B) disappointment (C) unease (D) anger (E) confusion 14. The statement that Walter has “blank patches in his persona” (line 54) is used to (A) show that Walter’s education in California was lacking, or not complete (B) indicate that he doesn’t really like his brother (C) remind us of how we often take our families for granted (D) suggest that siblings who are separated early in life may have trouble understanding each other (E) demonstrate how little Randolph and Walter have to talk about 15. The inclusion of Walter’s comments to Randolph in lines 84–86 emphasizes his (A) condescending tone in his refusal of Randolph’s help (B) true sadness about losing both his parents at so young an age (C) appreciation of Randolph’s efforts to reach him (D) resolve to avoid exploring potentially painful subjects (E) ignorance of the good intentions Randolph has for him
SAT Critical Reading Practice 2
Questions 16–23 are based on the following passage
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The following excerpt is from a book about the natural history of cats. This particular passage focuses on cats’ natural ability to land on their feet when they fall.
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We all know that the cat is usually unhurt when it falls from a height because it lands on its feet. The Persians have a saying that Ali passed his hand along its back one day to make this possible. How it is accomplished is another matter. The physiology and mechanics of this seemingly simple act are intricate and involved and not yet completely understood. It is a superb example of pure reflex; if the cat had to think about what to do next as it dropped through space it would never survive its first fall. Cats need this safeguard, and they seem to rely on it far too much. Agile and quick-witted though they are, they fall from windows, trees and other heights with predictable regularity and for no apparent reason other than carelessness or excitement. While in precarious positions they overestimate their reaching capacity in their eagerness to grasp something, and they insist on rolling in happy abandon on the brink of small and great drops. They do any number of thoughtless things such as these which are entirely inconsistent with their cautious nature and which frequently result in a fall. Scratches on cat owners’ thighs and furniture, the result of last minute attempts on the cat’s part to save itself, are ample evidence of their folly. Yet, on landing from a fall a cat will often go back to its original location to continue from where it was interrupted unless, realizing that its mistake has been observed, it stalks off with as much dignity as it can summon. Woe to those who laugh at it under these circumstances. According to Moncrif in his Les Chats, a description of the cat’s righting reflex was published in the Memoires de l’Académie des Sciences in 1700. Almost 200 years later, in 1894, the academy published another article on the subject, this time an analysis of photographs that show a cat performing the act. Numerous articles, both popular and scientific, have subsequently been published in English. Through physiological experimentation it is now known that the labyrinth or inner ear plays the greater part in a cat’s feet-first landing. It is already functional in the 54 day old cat foetus, that is in a
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foetus 6 days before birth. The body righting reflex is present almost a week earlier, on the 49th day. This part of the reflex is initiated by the proprioceptive impulses of the muscles and the exteroceptive impulses of the skin. (Proprioceptive means receiving stimulations within the tissues of the body. Besides being present in the labyrinth, proprioceptors are located throughout the body, principally in muscles and tendons. They are sensory nerve terminals which give an animal information concerning the movement and positions of its body. Exteroceptors are those nerve terminals which give information received from the external environment.) The righting reflex is therefore triggered by such signals as: (1) the cat’s feet losing contact with something solid, that is losing their normal tactile sensation, (2) the eyes registering an abnormal body position through external stimuli, (3) the muscles, etc., registering the same through internal stimuli, and (4) the ear registering an upset equilibrium. Skin, eyes, ears, muscle proprioceptors — at least four senses act together to produce a reflex act far too rapid for the eye to register. Blindness or inner ear injury do not prevent a perfect landing unless both handicaps exist together. The cat will then land “any which way” as we do when we fall. Even figuratively speaking, very few humans manage to land feet first; the proverb “No matter what happens he always lands on his feet” indicates the relative rarity of such an occurrence. Other vertebrates like squirrels, monkeys, frogs, dogs and rabbits do share in the righting reflex with cats but not to as great a degree. Cats are masters in the art.
23. The author most probably believes that our understanding of the reasons a cat is able to land on its feet (A) has been growing for well over two hundred years (B) is still extremely limited in its scope (C) has been derived exclusively from medical research of a cat’s anatomy (D) has been greatly enhanced by our knowledge of human reflexes (E) results primarily from society’s acceptance of cats as house pets
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST. 16
STOP
SAT Critical Reading Practice 3
The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness of expression. Part of each sentence or the entire sentence is underlined; beneath each sentence are five ways of phrasing the underlined material. Choice A repeats the original phrasing; the other four choices are different. Select the choice that you think produces the best sentence.
2. People tend to be afraid of spiders, but ants, gnats, and mosquitos tend to cause a lesser total fear among the general populace. (A) cause a lesser total fear among the general populace (B) lessen the fear among the general populace totally (C) frighten fewer people (D) generally lessen the fear among people (E) generally frighten most of the populace 3. Possessing great hand-to-eye coordination, the coach told Kendra that she could be a talented basketball player someday. (A) Possessing great hand-to-eye coordination, the coach told Kendra (B) The coach who told Kendra who possesses great hand-to-eye coordination (C) Kendra’s talent for hand-to-eye coordination caused her to be told by the coach (D) Because Kendra possessed great hand-to-eye coordination, the coach told her (E) Based on her possessing substantial hand-toeye coordination, Kendra was told by the coach 4. Hearing loss has long been linked to excessive exposure to noise; sustained loud noise actually destroys the tiny hair cells of the ear’s cochlea. (A) noise; sustained loud noise (B) noise, that (C) noise, when sustained (D) noise, sustaining it (E) noise; the sustaining of which 5. The commentator’s analysis of the election results were broadcast shortly after the votes had been counted. (A) were broadcast shortly (B) having been broadcast not long (C) was broadcast shortly (D) were to have shortly been broadcast (E) shortly was broadcast
Time—25 minutes 35 Questions
In making your selection, follow the requirements of Standard English, paying attention to grammar, word choice, sentence construction, and punctuation. Your selection should result in the most effective sentence—clear and precise, without awkwardness or ambiguity
EXAMPLE:
Because the taste buds atrophy as people age, older people have a tendency of using more seasoning than younger people do. (A) have a tendency of using (B) are tending to be using (C) tend to use (D) tend to a greater use of (E) will tend to the use of AB DE 1. Although the data from the first series of experiments having been shown to be inconclusive, the scientist planned a program of follow-up experiments. (A) Although the data from the first series of experiments having been shown to be inconclusive, (B) Being that the data from the first series of experiments were inconclusive, (C) Inconclusive data from the first series of experiments notwithstanding in the least, (D) The data from the first series of experiments were inconclusive however, (E) Although the data from the first series of experiments were inconclusive,
SAT Critical Reading Practice 3
6. The brain can burn as many calories during intense concentration as are being burned by the muscles during exercise. (A) as are being burned by the muscles (B) as the muscles burn (C) that are burned by the muscles (D) than the muscles do (E) which the muscles are burning 7. The young naturalist found it challenging to learn about birds of prey and they were exciting to see. (A) they were exciting to see (B) it was exciting to see them (C) exciting to see them (D) seeing them was exciting to him (E) seeing them exciting 8. The sonnet’s clear structure and defined rhyme scheme offer to the poet both constraints and possibilities. (A) offer to (B) offer (C) offer of (D) are offering (E) give the offer of 9. According to social facilitation theory, the presence of other people leads to improved performance on easy tasks and diminished performance on difficult tasks. (A) and diminished performance (B) while performance is diminished (C) but performance diminishes (D) so performance is diminished (E) and performance diminishes 10. Many mammals sleep so lightly that, even when apparently asleep, they will flick their ears, it’s a response to a sound we cannot hear. (A) ears, it’s a response (B) ears in response (C) ears; which is their way of responding (D) ears responding thereby (E) ears; a response 11. Carrots really do sharpen vision, they supply the Vitamin A that is needed for the proper functioning of the eye’s rod cells (A) vision, they supply (B) vision; in that they (C) vision they supply (D) vision because they (E) vision; inasmuch as they
The following sentences test your ability to recognize grammar and usage errors. Each sentence contains either a single error or no error at all. No sentence contains more than one error. The error, if there is one, is underlined and lettered. If the sentence contains an error, select the one underlined part that must be changed to make the sentence correct. If there is no error, select choice E. In choosing answers, follow the requirements of Standard English.
EXAMPLE:
After months of investigation, the commission A has finally released their report on the causes of B C D the disaster. No error E A B D E
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SAT Critical Reading Practice 3
12. Included in the critical review is many references A B to the filmmaker’s immature technique of shooting C close-ups for all emotional scenes. No error D E 13. Though Greenland is the largest island in the world A and has home rule, Denmark makes decisions about their external affairs and gives it two seats in B C D the Danish national assembly. No error E 14. On a baseball team the manager usually decides A before the game which one of his second-string B players are best suited to face a certain pitcher. C D No error E 15. The comedy routine performed by Higgins A was much more sarcastic and much less successful B C than Gruber. No error D E 16. Some myths are inspired to real events, while A B others are devices for explaining things C we don’t yet understand. No error D E 17. The remote town of Grovers Bluff, though hard to reach by anything other than an all-terrain A B vehicle, became famous for their delicious maple C candy and New England hospitality. No error D E 18. The caterer has a lot to accomplish before A tomorrow’s wedding — preparing the appetizers, B C decorating the cake, and she has to bring in all D of the chairs. No error E 19. When you first arrive in London, you are struck by A B the number of different English dialects there are C and then one remembers that the same is true in D the United States. No error E 20. Contrary to popular belief, many people with A carpal tunnel syndrome does not get it from using B C computers; the syndrome is caused by any repetitive D motion. No error E 21. Marathon running is a physically challenging A B activity and an excellent way to improve C D cardiovascular endurance. No error E 22. Much to her patient’s dismay, Dr. Jackson had no A B choice but to proscribe a drug that could cause a C D number of side effects. No error E 23. The works of a famous artist have been locked A away in a private collection, thereby preventing B many to appreciate her genius. No error C D E
SAT Critical Reading Practice 3
24. The chief financial officer spoke with shareholders A on several occasions so that their resignation B C wouldn’t surprise anyone. No error 25. Three of the most common dreams are falling, being A B chased, and the failure to perform a task. No error C D E 26. Resistance to antibiotics, which have long been a A B problem for humans, is now also showing up in a C small but growing number of pets. No error D E 27. Making an etching is like drawing a picture A in that both involve using a tool to make marks B C directly on a surface. No error D E 28. In the presidential election of 1916, neither the A Democratic candidate or the Republican candidate B was able to win a majority of the popular vote. C D No error E 29. In his criticism of the current governor, the speaker A implied that her administration had been B equally as profligate as that of her predecessor. C D No error E
SAT Critical Reading Practice 3
The following passage is an early draft of an essay. Some parts of the passage need to be rewritten.
Read the passage and select the best answers for the questions that follow. Some questions are about particular sentences or parts of sentences and ask you to improve sentence structure or word choice. Other questions ask you to consider organization and development. In choosing answers, follow the requirements of Standard English. Questions 30–35 are based on the following passage. (1) When you’re a teenager, all you hear is how lazy you are. (2) Turn on the TV and you’ll see all these adults complaining about the “kids today.” (3) How we don’t have it as hard as they did. (4) You know, this sort of thing really makes me angry. (5) I am taking all accelerated classes in school, including physics. (6) I’m on the soccer team and the school newspaper. (7) I do all of my homework. (8) I also hold down two jobs. (9) After school, I work as a cashier three afternoons a week at the bookstore, and on weekends I waitress at the country club. (10) Sometimes I babysit for my little brother too. (11) I’m saving up for college. (12) My mother thinks I should pay for part of it, because she paid for her education. (13) So, here I am, with hardly any time for a social life, working and studying almost all the time, and just when I get a second to turn on the television and relax for a while, I hear these two old guys lamenting my generation, saying we don’t have any goals. (14) Well, I have goals. (15) I’m going to be a lawyer some day. (16) My older brother is in law school now, and he likes it a lot. (17) Even if they knew how hard some people my age work every day, I bet they didn’t mention it. (18) I’m not trying to feel sorry for myself, or anything, and I don’t mean to sound bitter. (19) I’m just saying that there are a lot of teenagers out there like me, who work really hard every day, and who deserve a little recognition. 30. Which of the following is the best way to revise the underlined portions of sentences 2 and 3 (reproduced below) to make them into one sentence? Turn on the TV and you’ll see all these adults complaining about the “kids today.” How we don’t have it as hard as they did. (A) about the “kids today,” but we don’t (B) about how “kids today” don’t (C) about “kids today,” seeing as how we don’t (D) about the “kids today,” but now how we don’t (E) about us “kids today,” while we don’t 31. In the context of the second paragraph, which of these revisions of sentence 4 is most needed? (A) Insert “I just have to say” at the beginning. (B) Omit the words “sort of.” (C) Omit the words “You know.” (D) Replace the comma with a semicolon. (E) Replace “makes” with “made.”
SAT Critical Reading Practice 3
32. Which of the following is the best way to combine sentences 6 and 7 (reproduced below)? I’m on the soccer team and the school newspaper. I do all of my homework. (A) While I’m on the soccer team and the school newspaper, I have to do all of my homework. (B) Even though I’m on the soccer team and the school newspaper, I still always manage to do all of my homework. (C) I’m on the soccer team and the school newspaper, but I have to do all of my homework. (D) I’m on the soccer team and the school newspaper; I have to do all of my homework. (E) Despite being on the soccer team, I have to do all of my homework, along with working on the school newspaper. 33. Which of the following is the best revision of sentence 11 (reproduced below)? I’m saving up for college. (A) (As it is now) (B) Because I’m saving for college. (C) The reason being that I’m saving up for college. (D) The reason I’m working so much is that I’m saving up for college. (E) The money is being saved by me for college. 34. Which of the following sentences should be omitted to improve the unity of the third paragraph? (A) Sentence 11 (B) Sentence 12 (C) Sentence 14 (D) Sentence 15 (E) Sentence 16 35. A strategy that the writer uses in the second paragraph is to (A) provide examples to strengthen her point (B) use an extended analogy to develop her argument (C) exaggerate the amount of work she actually does (D) attack the motives of her opponents (E) elaborate on the main point of the first paragraph
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST. 22
STOP
SAT Critical Reading Practice 4
Time—25 minutes 25 Questions Select the best answer for each question. Mark your response by filling in the correct circle on your answer sheet.
4. Shana, while being ------- about her beliefs, was by no means ------- , choosing not to go to extreme measures to support her cause. (A) indifferent. .pusillanimous (B) ardent . . zealous (C) fervent . . inefficacious (D) equivocal . . clandestine (E) nebulous . . sycophantic 5. Itinerant portrait painters in nineteenth-century America were largely self-taught, relying on native ability and skills ------- as house and sign painters to ------- what they saw. (A) derided . . corrupt (B) acquired . . depict (C) ascribed . . portend (D) dissected . . embellish (E) delved . . enumerate 6. The play’s premiere was not well received, and the applause the actors received was -------. (A) tumultuous (B) somnolent (C) perfunctory (D) piquant (E) sumptuous 7. The hiker added a stone to the ----- that had been constructed alongside the trail. (A) lien (B) debacle (C) flux (D) accolade (E) cairn 8. Because U.S. intelligence ------- the code used in messages that Japan sent to its ambassadors in 1941, the Roosevelt administration realized by late November that war was -------. (A) deciphered . . imminent (B) interpreted . . gullible (C) assimilated . . invariable (D) intercepted . . emphatic (E) encumbered . . problematic
Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled (A) through (E). Choose the word or set of words that, when inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
EXAMPLE:
Before instruments can be used in a surgical ------- , they must be ------- . (A) operation . . authorized (B) intervention . . rotated (C) testimony . . verified (D) sediment . . regulated (E) procedure . . sterilized A B C D 1. In the subarctic taiga of central Alaska, the soil is permanently frozen except during summer surface ------- . (A) thaws (B) glaciers (C) vegetation (D) transmissions (E) shortages 2. Although the ------- of individual freedom is a central component of the American vision, our commitment to this ideal has often ------- in practice. (A) notion . . surpassed (B) primacy . . abounded (C) principle . . faltered (D) utility . . diverged (E) doctrine . . flourished 3. The photographs were uncommonly ------- ; viewers were visibly upset upon seeing them. (A) tainted (B) dismal (C) confusing (D) pedestrian (E) unaffecting
SAT Critical Reading Practice 4
9. Which statement best characterizes the relationship between passage 1 and passage 2? (A) Passage 1 describes the history of sprawl while passage 2 looks to the future. (B) Passage 1 is written from the point of view of a scientist and passage 2 is written from that of an economist. (C) Passage 1 presents the negative effects of sprawl as does passage 2. (D) Passage 1 criticizes sprawl while passage 2 points out possible benefits. (E) Passage 1 outlines the positive and negative effects of sprawl while passage 2 discusses only positive effects. 10. In line 12, the author uses the word “tentacles” in order to (A) hint that sprawl is organic in nature (B) color the reader’s view of sprawl. (C) disparage critics of sprawl (D) present an image of how sprawl leapfrogs (E) return to an analogy presented earlier in the passage 11. In line 16, “decry” most nearly means (A) discuss (B) misunderstand (C) condemn (D) attest to (E) defend 12. Unlike passage 1, passage 2 focuses primarily on sprawl’s (A) costs to the environment (B) benefits for individuals (C) pattern of increase over time (D) effect on existing infrastructure (E) visual changes to the landscape
The passages below are followed by questions based on their content; questions following a pair of related passages may also be based on the relationship between the paired passages. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passages and in any introductory material that may be provided. Questions 9–14 are based on the following passages.
Passage 1
Sprawl! The very word sounds ugly, and the results of sprawl are even uglier. Sprawl spreads development out over the landscape, with new buildings leapfrogging one another across the countryside. By increasing the distances between home, work, and school, sprawl increases travel times and creates congestion. Increased dependence on the car leads to increased pollution and smog; the paved areas required by cars lead to more water runoff and so more pollution of lakes and rivers. Runaway growth requires new infrastructure: new roads, new sewer lines, and increased fire and police protection. Developers may profit as the tentacles of sprawl consume the countryside, but ordinary people suffer the loss of open land, clean air, and compact communities.
Line 5
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Passage 2
Critics decry sprawl, but sprawl has its benefits. Its chief benefit is that it expands the choices open to American consumers. Sprawl allows more Americans to participate in the American dream: the ownership of a 20 detached single-family house on a reasonably large lot. When development spreads out, housing prices go down and consumers can buy more house for less money. The low-density lifestyle is what people want, and they seem willing to pay for it with longer commutes. Moreover, 25 sprawl promotes the development of a variety of quite distinct communities so that individuals can choose the community that best aligns with their own values.
SAT Critical Reading Practice 4
13. The authors of both passages would most likely agree that sprawl (A) improves the lives of individuals (B) creates more problems than it solves (C) leads to the misuse of tax revenues (D) is a peculiarly American problem (E) increases commuting times 14. Compared with the tone of passage 2, the tone of passage 1 is more (A) polemical (B) tempered (C) academic (D) optimistic (E) nostalgic Questions 15–25 are based on the following passage. In the following excerpt from a book about the psychology of art and music, the author discusses the way we perceive events and music in space and time. I get up from my chair, walk to the bookshelf, reach for a book, and return to my desk. Such a piece of behavior consists of intention and mobilized muscular action, of changes of place, etc. It is a sequence of events, but by no means all sequences are temporal. The sequence of the letters of the alphabet does not involve time, nor does the sequence of numbers (Aristotle, Categories 6.5a 15ff.). The features of the human face have to come in the right sequence: forehead, eyes, nose, mouth, chin. What counts in experience is the order of things, regardless of whether the sequence dwells in simultaneity or occurs in succession. The difference between simultaneity and succession matters, of course, and is noticed. But it is a difference perceived as one between properties or dimensions within the object itself. To characterize one object perceptually, no reference to time is pertinent. This becomes evident when one looks, in comparison, at situations that do involve time. Begin with the simple case of a person walking toward a goal. We know by now that the perception of this event involves extrinsic space when the moving person and the goal are perceived as belonging to different systems so that the diminishing distance between them does not belong to either. As the person moves, person and goal approach spatial coincidence in extrinsic space. Our event also consumes clock
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time, let us say twenty seconds, but perceptually it will involve time only if we ask, “Will he reach his goal in time?” Let us assume a man is running to board a subway train before the doors close. In that case, the visible, spatial goal is invested with a second connotation. Needed for the runner’s success is not only coincidence in space but also a particular relation in the time sequence: his arrival must precede the closing of the doors. Under such conditions, time is an active feature of the perceptual situation and is therefore needed to describe it. Such a time event is not necessarily paralleled by a corresponding action in space. In films, suspense is often obtained by a discrepancy between a visual situation that remains static and the progression of time toward the deadline. This is true toward the countdown at the launching of a rocket or for the annoying kettle that will not boil. Time figures conspicuously in the tension between the visually immobile system expected to explode and the mental image of the anticipated explosion as the goal system. Such a tension-loaded discrepancy need not relate to a visual situation. The impassive ticking of a clock, with its static monotony, creates an irritating contrast to time “running out” in a suspenseful situation. Note, however, that whenever the event occurs in a unitary time system rather than as a relation between two independent systems, time drops out of the percept and space takes over. Two men approach each other to shake hands. Usually we see them do so in space, not in time. Intrinsic time is not perceived, probably because the time dimension possesses no sensory medium of its own. This seems to be true also for music. Extrinsic time may be experienced when components of a piece are perceived as separate systems, for example, in the overlappings of a fugue. But this condition is not easily brought about. Music, as distinguished from painting, where we were able to separate the horseman from the bull without much trouble, acts strongly as a unified flow, one whose components are subdivisions of the whole rather than self-contained subwholes. The voices of a fugue are as tightly integrated in their musical flow as shingles on a roof. They resist emancipation. Music pours forth like a waterfall so that ritardandos and accelerandos are perceived as properties inherent in the music’s behavior. The standard speed from which slowing down or speeding up is heard to deviate, like the regular beat that syncopa-
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SAT Critical Reading Practice 4 tions distort, is commonly perceived not as an external standard, but as a structural norm inherent in the music itself, its heartbeat, as it were — similar to the vertical orientation from which the leaning tower deviates and which can be perceived as a virtual property of the tower itself. Yet it seems inappropriate to say that these musical events occur in intrinsic time. They are experienced as sequential, of course, but the sequence is no more temporal than the dancer’s leap. The music, like the dancer’s action, cannot be said to arrive out of the future and move through the present into the past. It occurs in “musical space,” a medium whose particular perceptual qualities have been discussed in writings on the psychology of music. Here again, intrinsic time does not seem to exist. Musical experiences involving extrinsic time are clearly different. The most radical examples are found in some modern music, where the continuity of the melodic flow is deliberately fractured so that even short intervals are strong enough to turn elements into selfcontained, often point-sized systems. Time is called upon as the only substratum in which the fragments can organize. Accordingly the listener experiences “waiting for the next tone.” 15. The author’s description of music supports the idea that (A) music exists in intrinsic time (B) music is a superior art form to painting or film (C) modern music is not perceived in aesthetic terms (D) music does not involve time (E) music does involve the perception of time in some form 16. In line 3, the word “behavior” probably means (A) attitude (B) measurements (C) acceleration (D) demeanor (E) activity 17. The fourth sentence of the second paragraph (lines 27–30) is meant to explain (A) the definition of art and beauty (B) when time will actually be perceived (C) the belief that time cannot really be measured (D) the difference between the person and the goal (E) why the person might be late for his goal 18. Which of the following best explains how music can help us to recognize extrinsic time? (A) By helping us to lose ourselves in the experience. (B) By forcing us to notice the fugue as a whole. (C) By lulling us almost to sleep. (D) By forcing us to notice time by deliberately disrupting melody. (E) By involving other media, like dancing and film. 19. The author brings up film (lines 40–43) as an example of how (A) time can never be accurately measured (B) watching a rocket launch can be more visual than spatial (C) the distortion of the passing of time can make a situation more suspenseful (D) the ticking of a clock can irritate the listener (E) to help define the term “deadline” 20. According to the author, watching two men approaching each other to shake hands (lines 56– 57) differs from watching a kettle that won’t boil (line 45) in that (A) it is not accompanied by the ticking of a clock (B) we perceive it taking place in space, not time (C) time is perceived differently by each man (D) there is more suspense involved (E) it is a relation between two independent systems 21. The author refers to music’s “unified flow” (line 68) in order to (A) differentiate it from other forms of art, like painting (B) describe a condition of timelessness (C) explain the overlappings of a fugue (D) demonstrate extrinsic time (E) compare music to bullfighting
SAT Critical Reading Practice 4
22. The author uses the phrase “shingles on a roof” (line 71) to illustrate (A) how the separate voices of a fugue come together to form a whole (B) how the audience reacts (C) the speed in which music is perceived (D) the disparity between music and painting (E) the freedom of the voices in a fugue 23. It can be inferred from the passage that the leaning tower (line 80) is analogous to (A) music (B) painting (C) film (D) a boiling kettle (E) a handshake 24. The passage implies that music is similar to a dancer’s leap (lines 85–90) in that (A) they are similar to film (B) the audience reacts similarly to both (C) their sequences are not related to time (D) they are identical (E) they both rely on the quality of the performance 25. The author’s tone toward modern music can best be described as (A) disdainful (B) objective (C) enthusiastic (D) indifferent (E) argumentative
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST. 27
STOP
SAT Critical Reading Practice 5
Time—20 minutes 19 Questions Select the best answer for each question. Mark your response by filling in the correct circle on your answer sheet.
4. The researcher, whose work has since been discredited, first came under suspicion when other laboratories were unable to ------- his results. (A) formulate (B) promulgate (C) abrogate (D) exonerate (E) replicate 5. Symbols such as sunrise, harvest, and the full moon are archetypes; they cross cultures and ------- a meaning that is -------. (A) denote . . privileged (B) convey . . universal (C) amplify . . localized (D) divulge . . profane (E) imply . . indelible 6. The loss of soil and the ------- of arable land into semidesert represent huge problems in many parts of the globe. (A) amelioration (B) blasphemy (C) acceleration (D) degradation (E) commutativity The passages below are followed by questions based on their content; questions following a pair of related passages may also be based on the relationship between the paired passages. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passages and in any introductory material that may be provided.
Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A through E. Choose the word or set of words that, when inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
EXAMPLE:
Before instruments can be used in a surgical ------- , they must be -------. (A) operation . . authorized (B) intervention . . rotated (C) testimony . . verified (D) sediment . . regulated (E) procedure . . sterilized A B C D 1. The deceased musician’s private tapes were recently ------- by his daughters and have been released ------- , providing a glimpse into the private moments of a master. (A) criticized . . quietly (B) unearthed . . unnecessarily (C) found . . posthumously (D) cited . . suddenly (E) acclaimed . . reluctanly 2. In literature and on stage, the ------- comes after the climax as a way for the author to conclude the story. (A) denouement (B) venality (C) venerate (D) monotony (E) epitaph 3. A ------- rival, Sue nearly always beat her opponents, but still she also managed to appear ------- while doing it. (A) feeble . . stalwart (B) nostile . . treacherous (C) formidable . . sympathetic (D) vulnerable . . charitable (E) disagreeable . . insecure
Questions 7–19 are based on the following passages. After Germany sank several American merchant vessels, President Woodrow Wilson made a speech on April 2, 1917, asking Congress for a declaration of war. Two days later, Senator George William Norris, a progressive Republican who opposed the decision to enter into World War I, spoke out against it. Passage 1 is an excerpt from Wilson’s speech. Passage 2 is an excerpt from Norris’s speech.
SAT Critical Reading Practice 5
Passage 1 We are accepting this challenge of hostile purpose because we know that in such a government, following such methods, we can never have a friend; and that in the presence of its organized power, always lying in wait to accomplish we know not what purpose, there can be no assured security for the democratic governments of the world. We are now about to accept gauge of battle with this natural foe to liberty and shall, if necessary, spend the whole force of the nation to check and nullify its pretensions and its power. We are glad, now that we see the facts with no veil of false pretense about them, to fight thus for the ultimate peace of the world and for the liberation of its peoples, the German peoples included: for the rights of nations great and small and the privilege of men everywhere to choose their way of life and of obedience. The world must be made safe for democracy. Its peace must be planted upon the tested foundations of political liberty. We have no selfish ends to serve. We desire no conquest, no dominion. We seek no indemnities for ourselves, no material compensation for the sacrifices we shall freely make. We are but one of the champions of the rights of mankind. We shall be satisfied when those rights have been made as secure as the faith and the freedom of nations can make them . . . There are, it may be, many months of fiery trial and sacrifice ahead of us. It is a fearful thing to lead this great peaceful people into war, into the most terrible and disastrous of all wars, civilization itself seeming to be in the balance. But the right is more precious than peace, and we shall fight for the things which we have always carried nearest our hearts—for democracy, for the right of those who submit to authority to have a voice in their own governments, for the rights and liberties of small nations, for a universal dominion of right by such a concert of freepeoples as shall bring peace and safety to all nations and make the world itself at last free. To such a task we can dedicate our lives and our fortunes, everything that we are and everything that we have, with the pride of those who know that the day has come when America is privileged to spend her blood and her might for the principles that gave her birth and happiness and the peace which she has treasured. God helping her, she can do no other. Passage 2
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War brings no prosperity to the great mass of common and patriotic citizens. It increases the cost of living of those who toil and those who already must strain every effort to keep soul and body together. War brings
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prosperity to the stock gambler on Wall Street—to those who are already in possession of more wealth than can be realized or enjoyed. [A Wall Street broker] says if we cannot get war, “it is nevertheless good opinion that the preparedness program will compensate in good measure for the loss of the stimulus of actual war.” That is, if we cannot get war, let us go as far in that direction as possible. If we cannot get war, let us cry for additional ships, additional guns, additional munitions, and everything else that will have a tendency to bring us as near as possible to the verge of war. And if war comes do such men as these shoulder the musket and go into the trenches? Their object in having war and in preparing for war is to make money. Human suffering and the sacrifice of human life are necessary, but Wall Street considers only the dollars and the cents. The men who do the fighting, the people who make the sacrifices, are the ones who will not be counted in the measure of this great prosperity he depicts. The stockbrokers would not, of course, go to war, because the very object they have in bringing on the war is profit, and therefore they must remain in their Wall Street offices in order to share in that great prosperity which they say war will bring. The volunteer officer, even the drafting officer, will not find them. They will be concealed in their palatial offices on Wall Street, sitting behind mahogany desks, covered up with clipped coupons—coupons soiled with the sweat of honest toil, coupons stained with mother’s tears, coupons dyed in the lifeblood of their fellow men. We are taking a step today that is fraught with untold danger. We are going into war upon the command of gold. We are going to run the risk of sacrificing millions of our countrymen’s lives in order that other countrymen may coin their lifeblood into money. And even if we do not cross the Atlantic and go into the trenches, we are going to pile up a debt that the toiling masses that shall come many generations after us will have to pay. Unborn millions will bend their backs in toil in order to pay for the terrible step we are now about to take. We are about to do the bidding of wealth’s terrible mandate. By our act we will make millions of our countrymen suffer, and the consequences of it may well be that millions of our brethren must shed the lifeblood, millions of brokenhearted women must weep, millions of children must suffer with cold, and millions of babies must die from hunger, and all because we want to preserve the commercial right of American citizens to deliver munitions of war to belligerent nations.
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SAT Critical Reading Practice 5
7. Which of the following most effectively describes the two passages? (A) Passage 1 is filled with historical arguments, while Passage 2 is concerned mostly with religious reasons. (B) Passage 1 describes the threat posed to America’s sanctity, while Passage 2 cites the dangers implicit in not going to war. (C) Passage 1 claims we must enter the war to preserve peace and democracy, while Passage 2 stresses we are only going to war so that Wall Street brokers will benefit. (D) Both Passage 1 and Passage 2 argue for America to demonstrate its strength in world politics. (E) Both Passage 1 and Passage 2 appeal to American patriotism and pride. 8. The word “check” (line 9) most nearly means (A) study (B) ticket (C) crack (D) hold back (E) endanger 9. The rhetorical style used by President Wilson in the first paragraph is best described as (A) scaring the listeners into obedience (B) calling the American people to action (C) providing excuses to allow Congress to declare war (D) ridiculing the enemy in an attempt to incite followers (E) attempting to make citizens feel guilty for not being involved already 10. The word “trial” (line 25) most nearly means (A) experiment (B) ordeal (C) legal entanglement (D) undertaking (E) exhaustion 11. The word “concert” (line 35) most nearly means (A) musical performance (B) army (C) faction (D) conflict (E) agreement 12. The author of Passage 2 argues that entering the war will (A) be better for stockbrokers than for the common man (B) vastly improve the economy for all (C) bring prosperity to gamblers (D) make the world safe for democracy (E) eventually beget lasting peace 13. The author of Passage 2 specifically mentions that all of the following will suffer if America enters the war EXCEPT (A) the mothers of the soldiers (B) the drafting officers (C) our countrymen (D) millions of children (E) generations to come 14. By mentioning that Wall Street executives “will be concealed in their palatial offices” (line 73) Norris suggests that (A) Wall Street executives essentially will buy their way out of being drafted (B) many will benefit from the war (C) Wall Street executives will contribute tactical information (D) the first to suffer will be those with the most to lose (E) as time goes on, Wall Street executives will become even more powerful 15. Compared with the tone of Passage 1, the tone of Passage 2 is more (A) scholarly (B) impassioned (C) dignified (D) nonchalant (E) unbiased
SAT Critical Reading Practice 5
16. Which of the following, if true, would substantiate the claims of the author of Passage 2? (A) The people out fighting for freedom will be the most likely to see material gain. (B) Wartime needs have made money for the wealthy in the past. (C) Without the help of American troops, democracy will not prevail. (D) Some stockbrokers will inevitably have to go off to war. (E) Previous wars have had no effect on the economy. 17. With regard to entering into World War I, both Passage 1 and Passage 2 discuss (A) the role of sacrifice (B) Wall Street’s essential greed (C) Germany’s unbridled aggression (D) the munitions industry (E) making the world safe for democracy 18. Which words best illustrate what the authors of Passage 1 and Passage 2, respectively, feel is the primary reason for the decision to enter into war? (A) honor and greed (B) patriotism and belligerence (C) duty and suspicion (D) the munitions industry (E) making the world safe for democracy 19. Both speakers seem to assume that (A) American victory is assured (B) many lives will be lost (C) the war is worth the price (D) most Americans will oppose the war (E) all will share equally in the necessary sacrifices
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST. 31
STOP
SAT Critical Reading Practice 6
Time—10 minutes 14 Questions The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness of expression. Part of each sentence or the entire sentence is underlined; beneath each sentence are five ways of phrasing the underlined material. Choice A repeats the original phrasing; the other four choices are different. Select the choice that you think produces the best sentence.
3. For many years, canaries were used as sentinels, whereby they detected carbon monoxide and other dangerous gases in mines. (A) as sentinels, whereby they detected (B) like sentinels detecting (C) as sentinels to detect (D) sentinel-like in detecting (E) for detecting, like sentinels, 4. The transformation of higher education after the Civil War gave rise to a new institution, it was the research university. (A) institution, it was the research university (B) institution, the research university (C) institution; the research university (D) institution, being the research university (E) institution, that being the research university 5. A classic romantic war film, Humphrey Bogart and Ingrid Bergman star in Casablanca; the movie contains such well-known lines of dialogue as “Here’s looking at you, kid.” (A) Humphrey Bogart and Ingrid Bergman star in Casablanca; (B) Casablanca with its stars Humphrey Bogart and Ingrid Bergman, (C) the stars of Casablanca being Humphrey Bogart and Ingrid Bergman, (D) Humphrey Bogart and Ingrid Bergman starring in Casablanca, (E) Casablanca stars Humphrey Bogart and Ingrid Bergman;
In making your selection, follow the requirements of standard written English, paying attention to grammar, word choice, sentence construction, and punctuation. Your selection should result in the most effective sentence—clear and precise, without awkwardness or ambiguity.
EXAMPLE:
Because the taste buds atrophy as people age, older people have a tendency of using more seasoning than younger people do. (A) have a tendency of using (B) are tending to be using (C) tend to use (D) tend to a greater use of (E) will tend to the use of A B D E 1. Just after disasters such as typhoons and earthquakes occur, that is when people are more generous in their donations to charities. (A) occur, that is when people (B) occur, which is when people (C) occur; people (D) occur so people (E) occur, people 2. The invention of the sickle and the grinding stone made it possible to harvest and then process large tracts of wild grain. (A) made it possible to harvest (B) making possible the harvest (C) made possible the harvesting (D) were making harvesting possible (E) gave the possibility to harvest
SAT Critical Reading Practice 6
6. Born in Pennsylvania in 1844, the painter Mary Cassatt’s career was spent in France working with the Impressionists, particularly Edgar Degas. (A) Mary Cassatt’s career was spent (B) Mary Cassatt spent her career (C) Mary Cassatt and her career were spent (D) named Mary Cassatt had a career spent (E) Mary Cassatt whose career was spent 7. The pilot program, which is likely to gain additional funding, has demonstrated its effectiveness in reducing pollution, improving health indices, and also by increasing employment. (A) also by increasing employment (B) increased employment (C) at the same time increased employment (D) increasing employment (E) not to mention employment increases 8. While everybody needs vitamins, most people can obtain all the vitamins they need by eating a wellbalanced diet. (A) vitamins they need by eating (B) vitamins needed in their eating (C) needed vitamins were they to be eating (D) needed vitamins if they were to eat (E) vitamins they need through the eating of 9. The term fine arts, derived from the older French term beaux arts, encompasses artistic works in many fields, including architecture, music, painting, opera, dance, and also written works of literature. (A) and also written works of literature (B) not to mention literature (C) and literary works (D) or literary works (E) and literature 10. The government that the Americans established under the Articles of Confederation reflected the former colonists’ fear of centralized authority and its potential for corruption. (A) its potential for corruption (B) their corruption potential (C) their corruptness (D) its potentiality to be corrupted (E) of its corrupting potential 11. Neural activity in the brain’s visual cortex can create visual perceptions but also connect visual experience with nonvisual events. (A) can create (B) can not only create (C) can create not only (D) does create (E) leads to the creation not only of 12. The many community meetings on the issue of lowincome housing has not resulted in a concrete plan for action. (A) has not resulted in (B) has not had the result of (C) have not had the result of (D) has had no result of (E) have not resulted in 13. Many workers in automobile assembly plants have been replaced by machines because they are cheaper in the long run and produce better quality products. (A) machines because they are (B) machines being (C) machines, due to their being (D) machines because the machines (E) machines; they 14. Every species has its own “life history,” or schedule on whose basis it does the passing of its genes to the next generation. (A) on whose basis it does the passing of its (B) for the passing of their (C) in the timing of which passing on its (D) whereby they pass their (E) according to which it passes on its
END OF TEST
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on either part of this test.
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ACT/SAT Test Preparation and Practice
What You Need to Know About the ACT Reading, English, and Writing Tests
Structure of the Test
There are four ACT tests: Reading, Mathematics, English, and Science. There is also an optional Writing Test. This workbook helps you to prepare for the Reading, English, and Writing tests. The ACT Reading Test measures how well you read material in the natural sciences, the social sciences, the humanities, and prose fiction. The ACT English Test measures how well you correct errors and improve sentences and paragraphs. The ACT Writing Test measures how well you can write about a specified issue in a limited amount of time. The chart shows the number of questions in each section. All questions, except the essay, are multiple choice.
Test Reading English Writing
Timing
Number of Questions 40 questions 75 questions 1 question
Time 35 minutes 45 minutes 30 minutes
The test is timed. You will have less than a minute for each multiple-choice question, and you will have 30 minutes for the essay question. These limits mean that you must use your time strategically. You should concentrate your efforts on getting as many questions correct as possible, since it may not be realistic to attempt all the questions. Don’t waste time by agonizing over a particular question. Instead, move on, and come back to difficult questions if you have time at the end. Guessing When ACT tests are scored, each multiple-choice question is worth one point. Because there is no penalty for incorrect answers, you should answer every question, even if you are just guessing. In most cases, you will be able to eliminate one or two answers; by doing so, you improve the chances that your guess is correct. Since the other students taking the test will try to improve their scores by guessing, you should guess even if guessing makes you a little uncomfortable.
Why Practice?
Practicing accomplishes two goals: you gain skill in answering questions, and you become familiar with the testing format and directions. Your increased skill and your familiarity with the test should improve your performance when you take the test. Before you practice, read this entire section, which explains how the test is set up. When you practice, take the test using the time limits given for each section. Are you able to complete the sections within the time limits? When you score the practice test, notice where you did well and where you did less well. Knowing your strengths will help you use them appropriately, just as seeing what you should work on will help you further prepare for the test.
34
ACT/SAT Test Preparation and Practice
You may decide that you need more practice after you finish this workbook. ACT provides an online test preparation program and an official print guide; information about the program and the guide are available at www.actstudent.org.
THE ACT READING TEST
The purpose of the Reading test is to measure your ability to read typical course material found in the freshman college curricula. There are four passages; each passage is followed by 10 questions. Neither the passages nor the items are arranged in order of difficulty. Each question has four possible answers. The Passages and the Questions The passages usually fill the two columns of a single page and are between 600 and 1,000 words in length. A note at the beginning of each passage explains what type of passage it is. There are four reading passages: a social studies passage, a natural sciences passage, a prose fiction passage, and a humanities passage. The possible content areas for each passage type are: Social Studies: anthropology, archeology, biography, business, economics, education, geography, history, psychology, and sociology Natural Sciences: anatomy, astronomy, biology, botany, chemistry, ecology, geology, medicine, meteorology, microbiology, natural history, physiology, physics, technology, and zoology Prose Fiction: intact short stories and excerpts from novels Humanities: architecture, art, dance, ethics, film, language, literary criticism, music, philosophy, radio, television, and theater, as well as memoirs and personal essays The questions following each passage test your understanding of its content. The questions cover not only significant information in the passage, but also conclusions to be drawn from that information. They may require your analysis of the author’s purpose, logic, techniques, and vocabulary as well. Thus, the questions are not asking you simply to find facts within the passage; they are asking you to grapple with its meaning and to make logical inferences about it.
Notice that even-numbered questions have answer choices F, G, H, and J; odd-numbered questions have answer choices A, B, C, and D. This pattern is designed to help ensure that you mark your choice on the correct line of your answer sheet.
Tips for the ACT Reading Test • Read the passage fairly quickly to grasp its structure and its overall meaning. Then you will know where to look if you need to reread some sections in order to answer particular questions. Don’t spend more than two or three minutes on any one passage. Remember that you score points for answering questions correctly rather than for reading the passage thoroughly. • When the question gives a line reference, look at that line or lines. Such questions often ask you to interpret phrases or figures of speech, and understanding the context is essential to correct interpretation.
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ACT/SAT Test Preparation and Practice
• Some questions begin with a phrase such as “It can reasonably be inferred from the passage that . . . .” This means that finding the answer depends not on searching for it in the passage but on using your reasoning skills to think about the passage’s content. • You may want to glance at the topics in all four reading passages. Then you can decide in which order to do each passage and its questions. Since you have only 35 minutes for the 40 questions, you should approach the passages strategically and do the easier ones first. The relative difficulty of the passages depends mostly on you and your strengths as a reader. Preparing for the ACT Reading Test • Read widely. Passage topics are drawn from many areas, so wide reading gives you experience with a wide variety of topics and an array of writing styles. • Stretch yourself. Attempt to read books and articles outside your “comfort zone.” Don’t worry about understanding them completely; concentrate instead on getting the gist. • Ask yourself questions as you read. As you read a textbook, a novel, or a magazine article, ask yourself what the author intends and why the author used certain techniques. • Ask yourself what conclusions the author might expect the reader to reach. • Although vocabulary is not specifically measured on the test, having a strong vocabulary will help you be a better reader and extensive reading will help you build a strong vocabulary. When you come across an unfamiliar word or an unfamiliar meaning of a familiar word, write it down on an index card or in a notebook. Check the meaning in a dictionary, and then create your own sentence using the word. Make these words your own by using them in your conversation and in your writing. • Review what you have learned about writing techniques. Questions may ask you to think about the author’s point of view or the function of a particular paragraph within the passages.
THE ACT ENGLISH TEST
The test is made up of five passages, written in a variety of styles and covering a variety of topics. Most questions are embedded in the passages; certain words or phrases are underlined, and you must choose the alternative that best expresses the ideas in the underlined section. The first alternative in most of these items is generally NO CHANGE. A few items ask you to consider the passage as a whole, thinking about rhetorical issues such as strategy and organization. About half of the questions on the test cover usage and mechanics, and half of the questions cover rhetorical skills. Specific content includes: Punctuation: Internal and end-of-sentence punctuation, emphasizing the relation of punctuation to meaning (avoiding ambiguity, indicating appositives, and so on) Grammar and usage: Subject-verb agreement, modifier agreement, pronounantecedent agreement, pronoun case, verb formation, comparative and superlative forms of adjectives and adverbs, and use of idioms Sentence structure: Relationships between and among clauses, placement of modifiers, and shifts in construction
ACT/SAT Test Preparation and Practice
Strategy: Appropriate expressions for audience and purpose, adding or deleting material, appropriate opening and closing sentences, and transitions Organization: Organization of ideas, relevance of statements, and judgments about order, coherence, and unity Your overall task on this test resembles what you do when you revise the first draft of an essay or a report. The weaknesses in the sentences are typical of those found in student writing: wordiness, poor sentence structure, and ambiguity. These questions challenge you to decide how the author’s meaning can be conveyed both correctly and effectively. Sometimes you must eliminate errors, and sometimes you must avoid awkwardness. The following sample passage is shorter than the passages in the actual test, but the questions are similar to those on the test. I know of two kinds of pack rats: the
1
furry four-footed ones that live in the desert and the smooth-skinned two-footed ones that live in my house. The desert pack rats build complex nests called “middens” and search their environment for interesting objects to carry back to enhance their nests. The pack rats in my house collect mostly useless objects such as china that is chipped,
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S1. A. B. C. D.
NO CHANGE rats the rats; the rats. The
The correct answer is A. A colon is the appropriate punctuation in this situation.
strange stones, and moldy magazines. Like their desert counterparts, my family pack rats carry their treasures home and refuse to be parted from them. But unlike the desert rats, my mother, father, and younger brother crave my admiration for their precious finds. 3
S2. F. G. H. J.
NO CHANGE china likely to be chipped, chipped china, china, which has been chipped,
The correct answer is H. This choice avoids wordiness and maintains parallel structure. S3. At this point the writer is considering adding the following true statement: Nevertheless, I continue to love these people. Should the writer make this addition here? A. Yes, because it explains the writer’s feelings about her subject. B. Yes, because it answers a question the reader is likely to have. C. No, because it does not explain how the writer feels about desert pack rats. D. No, because it distracts the reader from the main focus of the essay. The correct answer is D. The additional material would be distracting rather than useful.
ACT/SAT Test Preparation and Practice
Tips for the ACT English Test • Read the entire essay quickly before you answer any questions. You should try to grasp the essay’s purpose and intended audience. Don’t worry about errors you see; you will deal with those when you answer the questions. • It usually makes sense to respond to the selections in order. Each selection has some harder questions and some easier ones. But don’t spend too much time on any one selection or any one question. Remember that you have only 45 minutes for the 5 passages and 75 questions. • Examine the question carefully to see what is being measured. Some questions involve actual errors such as incorrect use of an apostrophe. Other questions require you to make judgments about what is most appropriate in a particular situation. A few questions ask you to consider how the passage as a whole meets a particular writing goal. • Look for problems in sentence structure. The underlined part may be a sentence fragment or may create a run-on sentence. Some questions involve problems in the way that the parts of a sentence fit together. • Look at the subject and the verb to be sure they agree. Don’t be distracted by words appearing between the subject and the verb. Check that pronouns agree with their antecedents. • Look for redundant or awkward wording in phrases such as “difficult dilemma” and “the reason is because.” Find the most effective way to eliminate such problems without introducing new errors. • Context is important. The passages are written in a variety of styles, and the correct answer to a question should match the style of the passage. Remember, however, that Standard English is the context for all questions. Preparing for the ACT English Test • As you read, notice good writing. Look at sentences that present complicated thoughts in a clear way and paragraphs that show coherence and unity. • If you have first drafts of some of your written work, look at comments by teachers and others who have helped you with editing. Look particularly for changes that improve the logic and coherence of a piece. • When you write and when you revise your writing, try to find clear, concise ways to express yourself. • Review key grammar and usage points in a grammar handbook • Read widely. If you read Standard English regularly, the errors in the questions will be more obvious. • Write often. Practice in organizing and stating your ideas will prepare you to recognize the problems that commonly occur in first drafts.
THE ACT WRITING TEST
This optional test measures your writing skills. There is a single writing prompt; it defines an issue and describes two points of view on that issue. You must write a short essay about your perspective on the issue. You may develop one of the perspectives given in the prompt or you may present an original point of view. Two trained readers will score your essay. Scorers will be looking at how well you • take a clear position • develop your point of view • support your point of view with logic • organize your ideas • use language skillfully, with appropriate vocabulary and varied sentence structure • avoid errors in grammar, usage, and mechanics
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ACT/SAT Test Preparation and Practice
Think about how you would develop an essay based on the following question: Good teachers are the heart of education: nothing is more important to the process of learning than having teachers who are passionate about their subjects and eager to explore them with students. Yet, despite the importance of what they do, teachers’ salaries remain low in comparison with those of other professions. Some people maintain that the best way to improve American education is to raise teachers’ salaries, attracting new teachers, including those who have previously worked in other fields. Others argue that, since the amount teachers’ salaries would be raised is most likely insignificant, it is more important to give teachers a greater voice in the school and to support them in creating an environment that truly stimulates learning. In your opinion, is raising teachers’ salaries the most effective approach to recruiting and retaining good teachers? Tips for the ACT Writing Test • Your goal is to write a clear, strong essay. Choose the point of view for which you feel you can write the best essay; you don’t necessarily need to choose the point of view that you yourself support. • Remember that your essay will be scored as a rough draft. Scorers do not expect to see a polished essay, but they do expect a well-developed point of view on the topic. • Use your time wisely. Spend a few minutes reading the assignment and planning your response. You may want to jot down notes about your ideas. Make sure you leave yourself enough time to write a conclusion and to correct obvious errors. • Follow the rules of good writing. Use the active voice, write interesting sentences, and avoid “empty” words. Use accurate, specific words; avoid obscure and pretentious language. • Stick to the topic. Essays that are poorly organized or wander away from the topic get low scores. Off-topic essays receive a score of zero. • Think of good examples to support your argument. If you use the most obvious examples, chances are a lot of other people will too. • Know yourself as a writer. Use your strengths to compensate for your weaknesses. If you are good at constructing a logical argument, make your argument as strong as possible. If you find it easy to think of intriguing examples, concentrate on that aspect of your essay. Preparing for the ACT Writing Test • Read opinion articles in local papers and in the national press. Analyze the arguments that the authors use and the examples they employ. • Take note of possible topics. Since the prompt must be appropriate for the test situation, topics are generally relevant to high school students, without being so controversial that writing about them would be emotionally difficult. • Think about areas in which you have special knowledge. Perhaps you are a musician, a gymnast, a rock collector, or a mountain climber. If it’s appropriate, use your special knowledge in your essay. Sometimes this knowledge can be used directly in examples, but it can also be used indirectly to develop analogies. • Keep up with current events. Think about the issues in the news, and discuss them with your family and friends. You might even try to make an argument for both sides of an issue.
ACT/SAT Test Preparation and Practice
• If your school has a debate team, listen to one of the team’s meets or practices. See how trained debaters build an argument and support their point of view. • Improve your writing by writing as often as you can; write for different purposes and different audiences. In addition to the usual school assignment, try writing a persuasive argument for an editorial or a letter to the editor. Tips for test day Double-check that you have the materials you need: your Admission Ticket, an official photo ID, and some Number 2 pencils. Be sure you know the route to the test center. If you will be driving yourself, find out about parking locations and any fees. Plan to arrive at the center a little early. Review the rules concerning the behaviors and materials that are prohibited in the testing center. A good night’s sleep and a good breakfast can help you feel your best on test day. A few deep breaths just before the test can help you relax.
ACT Reading Practice
READING TEST
35 Minutes—40 Questions
DIRECTIONS: There are four passages in this test. Each passage is followed by several questions. After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each question. You may refer to the passages as often as necessary.
Passage I
PROSE FICTION: This passage is from “Mrs. Manstey’s View,” a short story by Edith Wharton, from The Early Fiction of Edith Wharton (first published in Scribner’s Magazine July 1891).
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“Is it indeed? I didn’t know there was a magnolia there,” said Mrs. Sampson, carelessly. Mrs. Manstey looked at her; she did not know that there was a magnolia in the next yard! “By the way,” Mrs. Sampson continued, “speaking of Mrs. Black reminds me that the work on the extension is to begin next week.” “The what?” it was Mrs. Manstey’s turn to ask.
Mrs. Manstey, in the long hours which she spent at her window, was not idle. She read a little, and knitted numberless stockings; but the view surrounded and shaped her life as the sea does a lonely island. When her rare callers 5 came it was difficult for her to detach herself from the contemplation of the opposite window-washing, or the scrutiny of certain green points in a neighboring flowerbed which might, or might not, turn into hyacinths, while she feigned an interest in her visitor’s anecdotes about 10 some unknown grandchild. Mrs. Manstey’s real friends were the denizens of the yards, the hyacinths, the magnolia, the green parrot, the maid who fed the cats, the doctor who studied late behind his mustard-colored curtains; and the confidant of her tender musings was the church-spire 15 floating in the sunset. One April day, as she sat in her usual place, with knitting cast aside and eyes fixed on the blue sky mottled with round clouds, a knock at the door announced the entrance of her landlady. Mrs. Manstey did not care for her landlady, 20 but she submitted to her visits with ladylike resignation. Today, however, it seemed harder than usual to turn from the blue sky and the blossoming magnolia to Mrs. Sampson’s unsuggestive face, and Mrs. Manstey was conscious of a distinct effort as she did so. “The magnolia is out earlier than usual this year, Mrs. Sampson,” she remarked, yielding to a rare impulse, for she seldom alluded to the absorbing interest of her life. In the first place it was a topic not likely to appeal to her visitors and, besides, she lacked the power of expression 30 and could not have given utterance to her feelings had she wished to.
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“The extension,” said Mrs. Sampson, nodding her head in the direction of the ignored magnolia. “You knew, of course, that Mrs. Black was going to build an extension to her house? Yes, ma’am. I hear it is to run right back to the end of the yard. How she can afford to build an extension in these hard times I don’t see; but she always was crazy about building. She used to keep a boarding-house in Seventeenth Street, and she nearly ruined herself then by sticking out bow-windows and what not; I should have thought that would have cured her of building, but I guess it’s a disease, like drink. Anyhow, the work is to begin on Monday.” Mrs. Manstey had grown pale. She always spoke slowly, so the landlady did not heed the long pause which followed. At last Mrs. Manstey said: “Do you know how high the extension will be?’ “That’s the most absurd part of it. The extension is to be built right up to the roof of the main building; now, did you ever?”
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Mrs. Manstey paused again. “Won’t it be a great annoyance to you, Mrs. Sampson?” she asked. “I should say it would. But there’s no help for it; if people have got a mind to build extensions there’s no law to prevent ‘em, that I’m aware of.” Mrs. Manstey, knowing this, was silent. “There is no help for it,” Mrs. Sampson repeated, “but if I AM a church member, I wouldn’t be so sorry if it ruined Eliza Black. Well, good day, Mrs. Manstey; I’m glad to find you so comfortable.” So comfortable—so comfortable! Left to herself the old woman turned once more to the window. How lovely the view was that day! The blue sky with its round clouds shed a brightness over everything; the ailanthus had put on a tinge of yellow-green, the hyacinths were budding, the
“The what, Mrs. Manstey?” inquired the landlady, glancing about the room as if to find there the explanation of Mrs. Manstey’s statement.
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“The magnolia in the next yard—in Mrs. Black’s yard,” Mrs. Manstey repeated.
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GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
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ACT Reading Practice magnolia flowers looked more than ever like rosettes carved in alabaster. Soon the wisteria would bloom, then the horse-chestnut; but not for her. Between her eyes and them a barrier of brick and mortar would swiftly rise; presently even the spire would disappear, and all her radiant world would be blotted out. Mrs. Manstey sent away untouched the dinner-tray brought to her that evening. She lingered in the window until the windy sunset died in bat-colored dusk; then, going to bed, she lay sleepless all night. 6. Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between Mrs. Manstey and Mrs. Sampson as evidenced during their conversation? F. Mrs. Sampson and Mrs. Manstey have few opinions in common. G. Mrs. Sampson is trying hard to forge a friendship with Mrs. Manstey, but Mrs. Manstey rejects her attempts. H. Mrs. Manstey and Mrs. Sampson have a warm moment sharing common feelings about a third party. J. Mrs. Sampson shows her resentment of Mrs. Manstey’s life of leisure in her building. 7. Which of the following is the most descriptive of Mrs. Sampson? A. B. C. D. refined judgmental bighearted intuitive
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1. Which flower has Mrs. Manstey noticed blooming earlier than usual? A. B. C. D. the magnolia the wisteria the hyacinth the rosette
2. What surprises Mrs. Manstey during her conversation with Mrs. Sampson? F. that Mrs. Black will be coming for a visit soon G. that Mrs. Sampson didn’t realize there were flowers next door H. that the hyacinths have not been planted yet J. that she is beginning to feel ill 3. It can reasonably be inferred from the passage that Mrs. Manstey doesn’t want Mrs. Black to build an extension because: A. B. C. D. she dislikes Mrs. Sampson, who may profit from it. it would violate zoning codes. it would block her view. she can’t afford to build one herself.
8. Who does Mrs. Manstey believe is among her real friends? F. G. H. J. Mrs. Black the people on 17th Street the maid who feeds the cats her landlady
9. Mrs. Manstey most likely thinks of the view from her window as: A. a pleasant respite from her daily adventures. B. a poor substitute for a more typical life of social interaction. C. a pleasant addition to the flurry of activity in her home. D. a comfortable world filled with likable, engaging characters. 10. It can be reasonably inferred that by the end of the passage, Mrs. Manstey is feeling: F. G. H. J. hungry and frightened. tired and happy. melancholy and anxious. relieved and refreshed.
4. In terms of the way the passage presents her, the best way to describe Mrs. Manstey is: F. G. H. J. slow witted and idle. lonely and angry. unkind and uncaring. well-meaning and watchful.
5. Lines 45–56 suggest that Mrs. Black: A. B. C. D. is emotionally unstable. considers her predilection for building an illness. has more money than most people in town. is trying her best to take into account the feelings of others.
I remember being very young and going by Lanier High School. I didn’t understand it was a high school. I just knew it was a school and that it looked pretty. I told my mother I wanted to go to that school. She didn’t say anything then. I guess it was hard for her to actually tell a child who’s four or five, “You can’t go to that school because you’re black.” After the school integration in Little Rock, they started integrating in different places. In Montgomery, attorney Fred Gray was trying to get people to bring a lawsuit to integrate the whole school system. When I was in the eighth grade, my mother said we would do it. Another lady who had a son also agreed. There was a Methodist minister who had a lot of kids. He was going to be a part of it too. When word came out that the suit was going to be filed to integrate the schools, the Methodist church very abruptly moved that minister to Mississippi. I mean, snap, just like that. After they moved the minister, the other lady became nervous and said she didn’t want to participate. That left us. My mom asked me if I still wanted to do it. I said, “Can I go to Lanier if I do it?” She said, “Yes.” So I said, “Let’s do it.”
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The suit was filed on a Thursday. On that Friday, they had a big article in the paper with my name and address, who my parents were—the whole works. There had been bombings of churches and homes in Montgomery. A lot of friends called my mother and said they could come over and guard our house. My mother told them “No.” That Friday night after the lawsuit was filed, we started getting phone calls. People would say ugly things, or hang up. My mother said, “I’m going to watch the news until 10:30, and then I’m going to take the phone off the hook. When I get up, I’ll put it back on, but I’m not going to get up all night long and answer the phone.” The only thing we did was my parents moved into my bedroom because their bedroom was right on the corner. My mother said, “If something happens, it happens. I’m just going to put it in the hands of the Lord.” That was 1964, the year after President Kennedy was killed, and the lawsuit was Arlam Carr v. Montgomery County Board of Education. I was the lead plaintiff. The suit was to desegregate the schools so we could go to what-ever school we wanted. When the ruling came down, we won. I felt good.
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11. The main theme of the last paragraph is that one of the things school desegregation has shown is that: A. B. C. D. bigotry is growing in America. with proximity comes the potential for empathy. in time all prejudices fade. friendship can overcome even the greatest divides.
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ACT Reading Practice
12. The author of the passage was named as a plaintiff in the lawsuit Arlam Carr v. Montgomery Board of Education (lines 41–43) because: F. he had been singled out for discrimination by the board. G. his family feared violent threats against them. H. no other family in the community was willing and able to go to court. J. he was the most deserving academically to go to a new school. 13. The author of the passage implies he became friends with the kids who have “parents at Maxwell Air Force base” because: A. he was interested in joining the army. B. they were more worldly and therefore less prejudiced. C. it was his favorite place to study. D. integration was also just beginning to take place there. 14. In line 44, the word desegregate most closely means: F. G. H. J. organize. separate out. filter in. open up. 18. In lines 69–71 the author’s statement that “. . . I felt like a king—everybody parting the waters for the black kids. That’s fine with me. Got no problem with that” shows that the author refused to be: F. G. H. J. integrated. intimidated. outgoing. hypocritical.
19. The author shows the reader that Arlam’s desire to go to Lanier High School: A. reflected his mother’s desire that he go there. B. was fulfilled immediately after his lawsuit was settled. C. was a dream he was never able to realize. D. became a reality in his sophomore year. 20. Arlam’s friend ends his yearbook inscription to Arlam with the phrase “We shall overcome” most likely to indicate that the friend: F. has been subjected to prejudice as well. G. knows that Arlam can overcome any obstacles he faces. H. wants Arlam to know he believes that people of all races can get along. J. is deeply ashamed of his former bigotry.
17. According to the passage, the author would probably agree that despite the difficulties involved in desegregating Lanier: A. it had no real effect on people’s attitudes about racism. B. it wasn’t worth putting a child’s life in danger. C. highly public lawsuits always have their advantages. D. integrated schooling was an important step toward ending racial prejudice.
Man’s universe virtually exploded near the beginning of the eighteenth century. That explosion is critical to our understanding of comets. Galileo’s idea that bodies can move freely in open space and not slow down without some force to stop them, combined with Kepler’s theory of their actual orbits about the Sun, made Copernicus’s idea plausible: the Earth might really be a spinning ball, and it might really be plowing through space in an orbit around the Sun. Newton’s universal law of gravity added a superb unifying factor, a simple formula that could combine all the observations of heavenly bodies into a “simple” picture of the Solar System, as we know it today. The telescope added the finishing touch; with the accuracy of measurement increasing from a tenth of the Moon’s diameter to one thousandth, the theory could be checked to great accuracy and the distances to the Moon and Sun could be measured well enough to define the size of the system. The Earth, fortunately, is big enough to be a baseline for measuring distances to objects in the Solar System, although its diameter, as seen from the Sun, is only 17.6 seconds of arc, which is equal to 1/100th of the Moon’s apparent diameter. The distances turned out to be colossal, almost incredible. The Sun was 150,000,000 kilometers (93,000,000 miles) away! Jupiter was five times that distance from the Sun, and Saturn twice Jupiter’s distance. Now there was space to spare for the comets to move about the Sun, any way and anywhere they pleased, with no crystalline spheres to bar their way. Note that an accurate scale of distances is not critical to the predictions of planetary positions, because relative distances are adequate for most problems. The unit of distance is the mean solar distance for Earth (150,000,000 kilometers), which is known as the astronomical unit (AU). Only in the recent Space Age have this unit and other planetary measures been known to an accuracy of nearly one part in a million, typical of the accuracy of planetary direction measures. Galileo’s discovery of Jupiter’s moons made possible another exciting measure, the actual mass (or weight) of Jupiter itself, which is more than 300 times the Earth’s mass and nearly a thousandth that of the Sun’s. These numbers must have chilled the marrow of the eighteenth century conservatives, many of whom still believed that the Earth was the center of the Universe. When the great French astronomer (and Halley’s friend) Cassini discovered the moons of Saturn during 1671-84, that planet was found to outweigh the Earth by nearly 100 times. Now that the masses of these giant planets were known, it became possible to ascertain the effects of their attraction on the motions of each other, of the small terrestrial or earthy planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars)
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and of the comets. Halley’s intuition had been right. The orbits and periods of comets are changed by the planets. Practically speaking, however, the theory and calculations are awesome. It is reported that three French astronomers—J. J. de La Lande, A. C. Clairaut, and Madame N. R. Lepaute—computed incessantly day and night for several months to predict accurately the return of Halley’s comet in 1758. Indeed, because of this intensive effort, La Lande contracted an illness that affected him for the rest of his life. When Clairaut presented the results of these calculations, he noted that Jupiter and Saturn had seriously disturbed the motion of Halley’s comet. The comet would be more than 500 days late because of Jupiter’s attraction and another 100 days late because of Saturn’s. Thus Halley’s comet apparently would not come nearest to the Sun until the middle of April in 1759, instead of in 1758 (still with an uncertainty of about a month). The prediction itself came a bit late, as Clairaut did not complete his calculations until November 1758. The search for the comet had already become an international sport, at least in Europe and England. The professionals, to their chagrin, were beaten out by an amateur astronomer named Johann Georg Palitzsch, a small farmer who lived near Dresden. With the 8-foot-long telescope that he had made himself, Palitzsch discovered the comet on Christmas Day in 1758, fulfilling Halley’s prediction. Clairaut had missed the date of perihelion by only 32 out of some 28,000 days; this prediction was a triumph for Newton’s theory, and proof that comets are true rovers of the Solar System. As a tribute to Halley, the comet officially carries his name.
22. According to this passage, Galileo believed that the movement of bodies: F. G. H. J. would eventually cease if left alone. would continue at uniform speed if left unhindered. would change orbits freely in open space. was critical to our understanding of comets.
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ACT Reading Practice
23. According to the passage, the size of Earth: A. is 100 times that of the moons of Saturn. B. is large enough to be a reference point in astronomical measurements. C. was a pivotal reason for the belief of many early scientists that it was the center of the universe. D. turned out to be colossal. 24. According to the passage, an astronomical unit can most closely be defined as: F. G. H. J. a way to measure planetary movements. a unit that is nearly one part in a million. the average distance from the Earth to the Sun. a measurement to predict the comet’s movement about the Sun. 28. One of the main ideas the last paragraph seems to suggest is that: F. the work of professional scientists has frequently been proven meaningless by bright amateurs. G. due to all of Clairaut’s hard work, his predictions about the arrival time of the comet were the best. H. after years of scientific collaborations and hard work, Halley’s prediction was finally proven true. J. the size of Palitzsch’s telescope gave him an advantage over other astronomers. 29. It can be inferred from the passage that if Clairaut had completed his calculations before November of 1758: A. he might easily have been the first one to spot the comet. B. he would have discovered other comets in addition to the one Halley had predicted would appear. C. he would have greatly added to the body of knowledge we now have about the comet. D. it would have had little effect on the outcome of the “sport” of searching for the comet. 30. The second to last paragraph (lines 48–73) suggests that astronomers of that time believed that: F. they had acquired enough information to attempt to predict the date of the next appearance of Halley’s comet. G. in terms of work and calculations, they had clearly taken on an impossible task. H. much of the information put forth by scientists of previous eras was incorrect and possibly dangerous. J. the search for the comet was taken up with real enthusiasm only in the last couple of months of 1758.
A. contributed to the deterioration of his health. B. eventually proved Halley’s calculations to be off by 28,000 days. C. put to use information previously discovered about the effects of planets’ attraction on each other. D. was done in collaboration with two English astronomers.
The reviewers have all compared this book with the “Education of Henry Adams” and it was not hard for them to do so, for Sherwood Anderson twice refers to the Adams book and there is plenty in the “Story Teller’s Story” about the cathedral at Chartres. Evidently the Education book made a deep impression on Sherwood for he quotes part of it. He also had a couple of other learned quotations in Latin and I can imagine him copying them on the typewriter verifying them carefully to get the spelling right. For Sherwood Anderson, unlike the English, does not quote you Latin in casual conversation. As far as I know the Latin is correct although English reviewers may find flaws in it, and all of my friends own and speak of “The Education of Henry Adams” with such solemnity that I have been unable ever to read it. “A Story Teller’s Story” is a good book. It is such a good book that it doesn’t need to be coupled in the reviewing with Henry Adams or anybody else. This is the Life and Times of Sherwood Anderson and a great part of it runs along in a mildly kidding way as though Sherwood were afraid people would think he took himself and his life too seriously. But there is no joking about the way he writes of horses and women and bartenders and Judge Turner and the elder Berners and the half allegorical figure of the poor devil of a magazine writer who comes in at the end of the book. And if Sherwood jokes about the baseball player beating him up at the warehouse where he worked, you get at the same time, a very definite sharp picture of the baseball player, drunk, sullen and amazed, knocking him down as soon and as often as he got up while the two teamsters watched and wondered why this fellow named Anderson had picked a fight when he couldn’t fight. There are very beautiful places in the book, as good writing as Sherwood Anderson has done and that means considerably better than any other American writer has done. It is a great mystery and an even greater tribute to Sherwood that so many people writing today think he cannot write. They believe that he has very strange and sometimes beautiful ideas and visions and that he expresses them very clumsily and unsuccessfully. While in reality he often takes a very banal idea of things and presents it with such craftsmanship that the person reading it believes it beautiful and does not see the craftsmanship at all. When he calls himself “a poor scribbler” don’t believe him.
He is not a poor scribbler even though he calls himself that or worse, again and again. He is a very great writer and if he has, at times, in other books been unsuccessful, it has been for two reasons. His talent and his development of it has been toward the short story or tale and not toward that highly artificial form the novel. The second reason is that he has been what the French say of all honest politicians mal entouré. In “A Story Teller’s Story,” which is highly successful as a piece of work because it is written in his own particular form, a series of short tales jointed up sometimes and sometimes quite disconnected, he pays homage to his New York friends who have helped him. They nearly all took something from him, and tried to give him various things in return that he needed as much as a boxer needs diamond studded teeth. And because he gave them all something he is, after the manner of all great men, very grateful to them. They called him a “phallic Chekov” and other meaningless things and watched for the sparkle of his diamond studded teeth and Sherwood got a little worried and uncertain and wrote a poor book called “Many Marriages.” Then all the people who hated him because he was an American who could write and did write and had been given a prize and was starting to have some success jumped on him with loud cries that he never had written and never would be able to write and if you didn’t believe it read “Many Marriages.” Now Sherwood has written a fine book and they are all busy comparing him to Henry Adams. Anyway you ought to read “A Story Teller’s Story.” It is a wonderful comeback after “Many Marriages.”
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31. The main theme of the essay is that: A. Anderson’s book is the most beautiful and meaningful the reviewer has ever read, in spite of Anderson’s highly questionable writing skills. B. this book does not deserve to be maligned, regardless of the complete lack of merit of all his previous work. C. this book succeeds because of its unique form and the author’s ability to make the common things seem beautiful. D. some writers can make banal ideas truly beautiful. 32. According to the essay, what is one of two reasons that though Sherwood Anderson is a great writer, his other books have been unsuccessful? F. He spent too much time trying to make politicians more honest. G. His talents and aims are somewhat disconnected. H. In the past, he worked mostly as a short story writer. J. His writing shows more determination than common sense.
ACT Reading Practice
33. Hemingway’s attitude toward Sherwood Anderson is one of: A. B. C. D. confusion. sympathy. jealousy. admiration. 38. According to the essay, “A Story Teller’s Story” is a better book than “Many Marriages” because Anderson: F. was at last able to make good use of his knowledge of Latin. G. was uncertain of his skill when writing “Many Marriages.” H. had stopped his association with honest politicians. J. had finally learned to take himself and his work more seriously. 39. According to the essay, Anderson has included at least one of each of which of the following character types in “A Story Teller’s Story”? A. B. C. D. teamsters and writers bartenders and boxers baseball players and doctors all of the above
34. As it is used in line 15 of the essay, the word solemnity most nearly means: F. G. H. J. solidarity. seriousness. ritual. curiosity.
35. The essay suggests that “A Story Teller’s Story” is primarily concerned with describing: A. the author’s life, with all its ups and downs. B. a man who learns to appreciate those who have helped him. C. the allegorical life of a magazine writer. D. a baseball player who’s constantly getting into trouble. 36. The statement in the fourth paragraph that, “he often takes a very banal idea of things and presents it with such craftsmanship that the person reading it believes it beautiful” (lines 42–44) means that the author thinks that Anderson: F. cannot write well but is able to fool most people. G. is in awe of an artistry he cannot master. H. yearns strongly to be like other writers and to be able to think the way they do. J. can communicate ordinary ideas in an appealing manner. 37. According to the essay, what makes “A Story Teller’s Story” more successful than some of Anderson’s previous work? A. It has received more popular acclaim. B. It combines tragedy and comedy. C. It is written in the unique style that best suits the book’s author. D. It is written in response to receiving a literary award.
40. It can be inferred that the author of the essay believes which of the following about Sherwood Anderson? F. His talents can be so subtle that supposedly knowledeable people can’t appreciate them. G. The suggestions of his New York friends have been the inspiration for much of his finest work. H. “A Story Teller’s Story” is the only work of real value that he has created to date. J. His strength as a writer is in the novel, where he can develop characters in a leisurely and thorough way.
ACT English Practice
ENGLISH TEST
45 Minutes—75 Questions DIRECTIONS: In the passages that follow, certain words and phrases are underlined and numbered. In the right-hand column, you will find alternatives for each underlined part. You are to choose the one that best expresses the idea, makes the statement appropriate for Standard English, or is worded most consistently with the style and tone of the passage as a whole. If you think the original is best, choose “NO CHANGE.” You will also find questions about a section of the passage, or about the passage as a whole. These questions do not refer to an underlined portion of PASSAGE I the passage, but rather are identified by a number in a box. For each question, choose the alternative you consider best. Read each passage through once before you begin to answer the questions that accompany it. You cannot determine most answers without reading several sentences beyond the question. Be sure that you have read far enough ahead each time you choose an alternative.
What Is Supply-side Economics?
While there are many different economic theories. Supply-side economists believe that the
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economy is best managed by stimulating the production of goods and services. That’s the supply end of the economy. Supply-siders believe that supply always creates demand, setting in motion the movement of
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products and services and providing an important force in industrialized societies like the United States. This goes back, we are told, to the classical economics of
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Adam Smith and Jean Baptiste Say. Modern-day supply-siders also put a lot of stock in
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preventing government deficit spending because that encourages inflation. They are also against heavy government regulation of industry because that tends to inhibit growth. In order to increase the production of goods such as computers or automobiles supply-siders
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usually want income-tax cuts. They believe that will bring about into existence higher investment and greater
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A. B. C. D. F. G. H. J.
NO CHANGE goods; such as computers or automobiles, goods such as, computers or automobiles goods, such as computers or automobiles, NO CHANGE cause to bring about give rise to the creation of create
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economic activity.
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ACT English Practice
Supply-side economist Arthur Laffer suggested that reducing tax rates will ultimately increase government revenues because the incentive it provides for increased investment and savings will create more wealth, more jobs, and eventually, more taxable income. Other economists, using numbers and projections from the Treasury Department, doesn’t believe that the
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beneficiaries of a tax cut will reinvest their extra income in industry, instead of simply buying more goods. 8
A. B. C. D.
NO CHANGE do not believe are not believing is in disbelief
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At this point, the author is thinking about adding the following sentence: Arthur Laffer is the creator of the Laffer curve, which was used to illustrate his theory. Would this be relevant to add to the essay? F. Yes, because it shows how distinguished and well-known Laffer is. G. Yes, because it gives Laffer’s theory a mathematical base. H. No, because the other economists don’t have curves named after them. J. No, because it doesn’t add anything substantive to the discussion of Laffer’s theory.
The supply-side movement first came about in the United States in the mid-1970s. However, it is the result
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of the belief that the previously accepted economic theory, Keynesian economic management, failed to during that period control the huge inflation, increasing
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A. NO CHANGE B. (Do NOT begin new paragraph) In fact, it is the result C. (Begin new paragraph) However, it is the result D. (Begin new paragraph) In fact, it is the result NO CHANGE (place after growth) (place after inflation) (place after control) NO CHANGE unemployment, and unemployment and unemployment, and also NO CHANGE economics, at least at first tends economics at least at first, tends economics tends, NO CHANGE So, the Fortunately, the Surprisingly, the
10. F. G. H. J. 11. A. B. C. D. 12. F. G. H. J. 13. A. B. C. D.
economics, at least at first, tends to increase income
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disparities; the people who benefit most from tax cuts are those with the most income to be taxed; in other words, the richest people. For example, the adoption of
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these policies during the Reagan administration in the 1980s reversed the previous direction of long-term government economic goals.
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ACT English Practice
Economists of the Reagan administration guaranteed that they would keep the covenant of growth
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without inflation, rising production, and a renewed stock market. During President Reagan’s second term, many of these positive events, did occur. But they were accompanied by massive international trade deficits, huge federal spending deficits, and a troubled farm economy. In 1987 the stock market suffered a dramatic drop, which led many to question the administration’s economic policies. During Reagan’s presidential term, the national debt grew from $900 billion to over $2 trillion. 15
14. F. G. H. J.
NO CHANGE were certain the promise would be kept of promised the guarantee of promised
15. Suppose the writer had intended to write a brief essay persuading readers that supply-side economics is the best way to manage the nation’s economy. Would this essay meet that goal? A. Yes, becaue the essay supplies evidence that supply-side economics has only positive effects. B. Yes, because the author focuses on why supplyside economics increases income equality while improving the supply of goods and services. C. No, because the essay mostly describes supplyside economics and its positive and negative effects during the Reagan years. D. No, because the tone of the essay is so partisan that no persuasion would be likely to occur.
PASSAGE II
Take Suffrage Seriously
In a democracy, people have the opportunity to affect their own everyday lives. What’s by voting. If
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16. F. G. H. J. 17. A. B. C. D.
NO CHANGE What is It’s Its NO CHANGE can’t but complain that can’t, however, complain that, can’t complain that
ACT English Practice
Consider how basic and crucial a right suffrage is.
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What’s suffrage? Suffrage is the right to vote in public affairs. The freedom of a person who wants change in government to choose between competing people or ideas without fear is, as one noted scholar said,
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18. Which of the following, if added here, would most effectively serve to summarize one of the main ideas of the essay? F. People should not take for granted the right to vote. G. There are millions of people who don’t vote —and that’s just wrong. H. The number of people who don’t vote is increasing with each national election. J. This essay will explore the reasons people don’t vote. 19. A. B. C. D. 20. F. G. H. J. 21. A. B. C. D. 22. F. G. H. J. NO CHANGE is as one noted scholar said is as one noted scholar, said is, as one noted scholar, said, NO CHANGE you’re excluded you’re excluded and being cast out like an outcast being excluded NO CHANGE its laws, it’s laws. its laws NO CHANGE it varies. it has varied. they have varied
“basic to self-government.” If you are excluded from the right of suffrage, you’re like excluded as an outcast
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from a basic means of participating in the political decision-making process. Voting restrictions exist in nearly every country, although depending on it’s laws,
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different parts of the world and under different systems of government where the voting criteria have much in common.
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In some nations, women’s suffrage is still subject to qualifications. In others, racial requirements and land ownership may be issues. These limits on suffrage, as well as those based on religion, taxpaying, and education,
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23. A. NO CHANGE B. in which the voting criteria have much in common C. in which the criteria for voting have much in common D. OMIT the underlined portion.
24. F. G. H. J.
NO CHANGE religion, taxpaying, education religion taxpaying, and education religion, and taxpaying, and education
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ACT English Practice were common during the Middle Ages, and many have stuck around for centuries. Fortunately, most of these
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limits stem from those in charge being afraid to let the poor and oppressed vote, because these powerless citizens have no stake in maintaining the existing order that
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NO CHANGE Hence, In fact, In contrast,
keeps the powerful in control.
Our Constitution grants all adults in this country the right to vote. At the time that document was written, only about 6 percent of the adult male population was
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26. F. NO CHANGE G. order, or the established system of social organization, H. order, which doesn’t mean the arrangements of the elements of a group, J. entrenched social organization that can be called order, 27. The author means here to illustrate how voting laws at the time the Constitution was created were different from voting laws today. Given that all of these statements are true, which of these choices would best achieve the writer’s objective? A. NO CHANGE B. many wealthy landowners owned slaves. C. a newly-formed country was drafting its first laws. D. several drafts were voted on before the final one was agreed upon. 28. F. G. H. J. NO CHANGE War, when they started abolishing slavery. War, which abolished slavery. beginning of slavery abolition after the war.
entitled to vote. Soon after that, religious and property
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qualifications were eliminated. It was legal to restrict blacks from voting until the 15th amendment to the Constitution was ratified after the Civil War, which began relieving slavery. Women weren’t
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granted suffrage until 1920 with the 19th amendment. The right to vote was extended to 18-year-olds in 1971 with the 26th amendment. Imagine being a woman in the United States during World War I or an 18-year-old during the 1960s. In both of these different cases, you would have been
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denied the right to vote. So if you are eligible to vote, be sure to do so. Don’t take your right to vote for granted: at another time in our nation’s history, that
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30. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined portion would NOT be acceptable? F. granted. At G. granted, at H. granted, since at J. granted; don’t forget that at
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ACT English Practice
PASSAGE III
Greenland
Most people know little about Greenland, that huge island northeast of North America. Also known as Kalaallit, it is actually the worlds largest island. Green(31)
31. A. B. C. D.
NO CHANGE our worlds the world’s the worlds’
land is about 1,650 miles long and 250 miles wide.
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Over two-thirds of its territory is north of the Arctic, and its northernmost point is less than 500 miles across the Arctic Ocean from the North Pole. Greenland’s craggy southern coastline, the only habitable portion where people can live, is 24,430 miles
(33)
32. At this point, the writer is considering adding the following true statement: Greenland covers an area that is approximately three times the size of Texas. Should the writer make that addition here? F. Yes, since the writer makes other references to Texas in the essay. G. Yes, since the information gives the reader a better idea of Greenland’s size. H. No, because the climate of Texas is so different that the comparison is useless. J. No, because it distracts the reader from the main focus of the paragraph and does not logically fit at this point. 33. A. B. C. D. NO CHANGE only portion that human people can inhabit, habitable portion for people, habitable portion
long; and the temperature in that area can reach 50
(34)
The largest settlement is the capital, which is called Nuuk or Godthab, and that is where close to
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34. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined portion would NOT be acceptable? F. long, and the G. long, the H. long; the J. long. The 35. A. B. C. D. 36. F. G. H. J. NO CHANGE which is where being the place where NO CHANGE being make up OMIT the underlined portion.
one-quarter of the population lives. Most inhabitants are Greenlanders, a mixture of Eskimo and whites born in Greenland; immigrants, mainly from Denmark, is about
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ACT English Practice
12% of the population. The two major languages are Danish and Greenlandic, and many people also speak English. Greenlandic comes from the creation of a
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single literary language from many similar Eskimo dialects. The population of Greenland is highly literate, all
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37. A. B. C. D.
NO CHANGE was the creation of was formed by creating created
Greenlanders over the age of 15 are able to read and write. 39
38. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined portion would NOT be acceptable? F. literate; all G. literate, since all H. literate; since all J. literate, and all 39. At this point, the writer is considering adding the following true statement: The national holiday of Greenland is June 21, the longest day of the year. Should the writer make this addition here? A. Yes, since most readers will find this detail very interesting. B. Yes, since the statement fits well with the main purpose of this paragraph. C. No, since this information is not appropriate in this paragraph. D. No, since it contradicts information in the first paragraph. 40. F. G. H. J. NO CHANGE been migrated were migrated had been migrated
Greenland’s Eskimo migrated from North America
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between 4000 B.C. and A.D. 1000. Norse settlers, led by Eric the Red, established a colony between 980 and 985. Despite their efforts, this Norse settlement
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disappeared around 1400. During the 16th century, European explorers charted the island’s coast, and
41. At this point in the essay, the author wants to explain why the Norse settlement disappeared. Assuming all are true, which of these achieves that goal? A. NO CHANGE B. Though Greenland would be settled again by northern Europeans, C. Even with other Norse conquerors making it all the way to North America, D. Due to severe winters and trade problems, 42. F. G. H. J. NO CHANGE settled had settled being settled
ACT English Practice
Over time, the Danish developed substantial economic
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ties to Greenland.
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Denmark was occupied by Germans during World War II; during that time, the U.S. government took over Greenland as a protectorate. In 1946 the United States offered to buy Greenland. However the Danish
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43. At this point in the essay, the author wants to demonstrate how significant Denmark’s economic ties were. Assuming all are true, which of these achieves that goal? A. NO CHANGE B. In 1729 the Danish crown assumed control, and from 1774 until 1951, the Danish crown had a monopoly on all trade with Greenland. C. Monarchies often invest in their colonies, exporting goods and establishing methods of production. D. Denmark eventually established ties with its other territories elsewhere in the New World. 44. F. G. H. J. NO CHANGE Certainly Although Apparently
government wouldn’t sell, it gave the United States permission to retain and develop a radar and weather patrol base at Thule. In 1975 a commission worked out terms for Greenland’s home rule. These terms were endorsed by Danish voters in 1978, and a year later, home rule was instituted. The Landsting, from which the people elect,
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determines the internal affairs of Greenland. The Danish government handles some of Greenland’s external affairs, and Greenland holds two seats in the Danish national assembly.
45. A. B. C. D.
NO CHANGE elected by the people, people-elected, OMIT the underlined portion.
Question 46 asks a question about the passage as a whole.
46. Suppose the writer had intended to write a brief essay persuading people to visit Greenland as tourists. Would this essay successfully fulfill the writer’s goal? F. Yes, because the essay provides a great deal of information about the land, people, and history of Greenland. G. Yes, because the essay lists many activities that tourists would enjoy. H. No, because the factual information in the essay is not designed to appeal to tourists. J. No, because the tone of the essay makes Greenland sound potentially dangerous for tourists.
No Pain, No Gain
When I was younger, I was always a little larger than the other kids. I used my weight as an excuse not to be social. It was a protective layer, keeping me safe
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from the rejection of others. Many of the members of my family are overweight too,
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47. A. B. C. D.
NO CHANGE a social butterfly. the cheerleader type. doing the social thing.
including my parents, aunts, and uncles.
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About five years ago, my aunt had a heart attack. The doctors said it might not have happened if she’d exercised regularly; eaten fewer fatty foods, and
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more leafy, vegetables; and generally taken better care
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of her body. However, because of her weight, it was
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almost inevitable. That really opened my eyes. I looked in the mirror and realized that if I didn’t do something, I could end up like my aunt. It was time to do, finally,
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something I had avoided all my life—start dieting and exercising. The dieting came first. I started slowly, by just
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NO CHANGE dieting had been coming dieting coming dieting, which came
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ACT English Practice cutting out all food after 7:00 P.M. My biggest meal became breakfast, and the meals got smaller as the day went on, until dinner. 52 The exercise was more difficult. I was never athletic; I would never even consider taking the stairs if there was an elevator in sight. The thought of getting on
52. Assuming all are true, which of these sentences, if added here, would best end this paragraph about the author’s dieting success? F. Breakfast is the most important meal of the day. G. I stopped the midday snacks altogether too, and that really made a big difference. H. Sometimes I cheated and ate bacon with my eggs. J. I missed chocolate the most. 53. A. B. C. D. NO CHANGE You can either walk or run on a treadmill. Some treadmills can be set to run at an incline. OMIT the underlined portion.
a treadmill seemed impossible. Treadmills can either be
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manually operated, or electric.
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I started out slowly, just walking for five minutes a day. I couldn’t believe how much walking five minutes made me sweat! 54
54. Which of these sentences, if added here, would best serve to conclude and sum up the main idea of the paragraph? F. I did lots of laundry those first few weeks. G. But I noticed that everyone in the gym was sweating, which made me feel better. H. In time, the exercise became easier, and in a few weeks, I was up to thirty minutes at a time. J. I wonder how long professional athletes can last on the treadmill. 55. Which of these sentences provides the best transition between the previous paragraph and this one? A. Exercise can give you more energy to face your day. B. Then I tackled the weights. C. I invested in a good pair of sneakers. D. Walking is less likely to cause injury than running is. 56. F. G. H. J. 57. A. B. C. D. 58. F. G. H. J. NO CHANGE who’s appearance who appear whom appearance NO CHANGE So However When NO CHANGE weight-loss goal, losing weight goal, loss of weight goal,
I was worried about it at first because I envisioned myself all muscle-bound with a thick neck. But the truth is, building muscle from lifting weights helps you lose weight because muscle tissue burns more calories than fat. And for those of us for
goal of loss of weight, the first thing I did was throw
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ACT English Practice away all of my old “fat” clothes, buying a whole new
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wardrobe. At my cousin’s wedding, she said I was noticed by more guests than her!
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59. A. B. C. D. 60. F. G. H. J. 61. A. B. C. D.
NO CHANGE clothes and buy clothes: and buy clothes; buying NO CHANGE more guests than she was! more guests than them! more guests than they were! NO CHANGE of course, nowadays, yet,
But besides looking better, I feel better because I know I’m healthier. And nevertheless, even when
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there’s an elevator in sight, I always take the stairs!
PASSAGE V
The First Lady of Lawn Tennis
She changed the face of tennis. Dorothea Lambert
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Chambers won seven Wimbledon tennis titles. Being
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an innovative athlete, Chambers was one of the first
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fierce competitors in women’s tennis, and today’s harddriving female players owe their livelihoods to her. She triumphed at a time when women had
63. A. NO CHANGE B. Chambers, an innovative athlete, was one of the first C. Being an innovative athlete, Chambers, one of the first D. Chambers being an innovative athlete, one of the first 64. F. G. H. J. 65. A. B. C. D. NO CHANGE competitors or prestige competitors or no prestige few competitors and little prestige NO CHANGE striked a blow for women’s striked blows for women’s struck blows for women
ACT English Practice
On September 3, 1878, Dorothea Katherine Douglass was born in Ealing, England. Her father was an Anglican clergyman. In 1907 she married merchant Robert Lambert Chambers. She learned tennis at the
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Ealing Lawn Tennis Club.
Back then, women’s tennis was not taken seriously. Its purpose was to entertain, by staging matches at
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66. F. G. H. J. 67. A. B. C. D.
NO CHANGE tennis which she played intensely, tennis, later to win seven Wimbledon titles, tennis, in her home town, NO CHANGE entertain by matches, staged entertain, with matches staged, entertain by staging matches
garden parties. Playing hard was considered unfeminine, and women were thought to be prone to emotional outbursts and, therefore, too hysterical to truly compete. But Chambers disagreed. Tall, slim, and fit, she put her all into tennis, and disapproved of those who approached it casually, or did not see its beauty or
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potential. She believed the only way to banish the myth of the “hysterical female” was to get more women into tennis, which she attempted to do.
68. F. G. H. J.
NO CHANGE that its it’s their
[1] Chambers had a definite playing style. [2] This
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helped her control the game. [3] Known for her intensity, she often won on sheer determination, keeping the pressure on her opponents till they just gave up. [4] Chambers won her first Wimbledon singles title
69. Which of these sentences best provides a specific description of the type of tennis game Dorothea Lambert Chambers played? A. NO CHANGE B. She played a baseline game with steady, accurate groundstrokes. C. Her game has been copied by some of her admirers. D. No women before her had played like her. 70. F. G. H. J. 71. A. B. C. D. NO CHANGE in 1903 when she in 1903. She took home in 1903 and then NO CHANGE game, and, in 1913 when she game, and in 1913, when she game, and in 1913, when, she
in 1903, she took home a total of seven between 1903
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and 1914. [5] Chambers’ finest performances took place in 1911, when she swept the final without losing a single game and in 1913 when she didn’t lose a single set.
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ACT English Practice
[6] With her seventh title, she created a record for Wimbledon triumphs that stood for twenty-four years.
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72. The author wants to add this sentence about Chamber’s dedication to the sport of tennis to this paragraph: Only two pregnancies and World War I could keep her from competing. The most logical place for this sentence is F. G. H. J. 73. A. B. C. D. after Sentence 1 after Sentence 4 after Sentence 5 after Sentence 6 NO CHANGE exist. be existing. have existed.
But Chambers didn’t really lose; if it wasn’t for her legacy, the competitive and intense younger generation led by Lenglen wouldn’t have been existing.
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When play resumed after World War I ended, twentyyear-old French sensation Suzanne Lenglen ended forty-year-old Chambers’ reign in competitive matches. She died in 1960. Chambers then became the elder stateswomen of tennis, and became the first female councilor of the Lawn Tennis Association. She inspired many with her book, Lawn Tennis for Ladies. Dorothea Lambert Chambers was committed to winning, and she changed tennis’s face certainly
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forever. She was the first female to play with intensity.
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74. F. G. H. J.
NO CHANGE changed, certainly, tennis’ faces changed the certain faces of tennis certainly changed the face of tennis
75. The author wants to link the beginning and end of the essay. Which of these choices best achieves this? A. NO CHANGE B. intensity and competitiveness. C. intensity, destroying the “hysterical female” myth. D. intensity, paving the way for women such as Billie Jean King, Martina Navratilova, and Steffi Graf.
ACT Writing Practice
WRITING TEST
30 Minutes—1 Question
DIRECTIONS: In this test of your writing skills, you will have 30 minutes to
write an essay in English. Read the prompt carefully before you plan and write your essay. Your essay will be scored on how well you develop your position on the issue in the prompt, using logical reasoning to support your ideas. Write clearly and effectively according to the conventions of Standard English. Write or print clearly; illegible essays cannot be scored.
ACT Assessment Writing Test Prompt
Teachers often give group assignments so that students can experience the process of working together and pooling their talents to achieve a result that none of them could have achieved by working alone. While some students enjoy this collaborative effort, others prefer to work individually and insist they should not have to endure the time-consuming demands of working with others. What is your opinion about the value of group assignments? In your essay, take a position on this question. You may argue in favor of group assignments or against them, or you may present a different point of view on this issue. Support your position with specific reasons and examples.
