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Invisible Hand

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Submitted By vishalbhardwaj30
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What does the term of “Invisible Hand“ stand for?
What are the real consequences and premises of “Invisible Hand”?
Introduction
In Adam Smith’s conception, it is the ‘invisible hand’ of the free market that organizes the seemingly chaotic and self-interested activities of human beings into a beneficent and industrious social order. The conception tries to describe “Self – regulating nature of market” based on natural inclination of human-being. Unplanned, unintended actions coined with natural inclination of self-interest channels ambitions towards meeting social necessities. The main motto of the argument was that the market freely will lead to perfect equality.
Actually, perfect competitive market fundamentalism was bulwarked with “Invisible hand”. It is very arguable and ambiguous that why Adam Smith called this sort of regulation “invisible hand”. Cognitively, it is tangible but in terms of understanding of special mechanism is very incomprehensible and too invisible to put forward as a market regulatory factor.
Self-interest as a part of human nature took a role of supervisor and established “self-regulatory nature of marketplace”. Diving into deep comprehension of the term of invisible hand, we can see that the term implies decentralization of the wealth among inhabitants. We can face with the term of “invisible hand” in his previous work called “The Theory of Moral Sentiments” which envisages the natural propensity of human-being:
“They are led by an invisible hand to make nearly the same distribution of the necessaries of life, which would have been made, had the earth been divided into equal portions among all its inhabitants, and thus without intending it, without knowing it, advance the interest of the society, and afford means to the multiplication of the species.”[i]
It is obvious and absolute that the model of self-interested individuals is now

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