1. Which of the following patients are more likely than others to have uterine atony and hemorrhage after delivery?
Prolonged labor
Primigravidas
Hypertensive disorders
Pudendal anesthesia for delivery
Obesity

2. Which of the following diseases rarely leads to postpartum hemorrhage?
A. twin pregnancy
B. polyhydramnios
C. premature rupture of membrane
D. placenta previa
E. severe pre-eclampsia

3. A 26-year-old G2 P1 woman underwent a normal vaginal delivery. A viable 3.3kg male infant was delivered. The placenta delivered spontaneously. The obstetrician noted significant blood loss from the vagina, totaling approximately 700 ml. The uterine fundus appeared to be well contracted. Which of the following is the most common etiology for the …show more content…
Uterine atony
D. Coagulopathy
E. Endometrial ulceration

4. A 32-year-old woman has severe postpartum hemorrhage that does not respond to medical therapy. The obstetrician states that surgical management is the best therapy. The patient desires future child bearing.
Which of the following is most appropriate to achieve the therapeutic goals?
A. Utero-ovarian ligament ligation
B. Uterine artery embolization
C. Supracervical hysterectomy
D. Ligation of the external iliac artery
E. Cervical cerclage

5. A 34-year-old woman is noted to have significant uterine bleeding after a vaginal delivery complicated by placenta abruption. She is noted to be bleeding from multiple venipuncture sites. Which of the following is the best therapy?
A. Immediate hysterectomy
B. Packing of the uterus
C. Ligation of the internal iliac artery
D. Ligation of utero-ovarian ligaments
E. Correction of coagulopathy

6. A 30-year-old G1 P1 who underwent a cesarean section 3 days previously has a fever of 38.3℃. The skin incision is indurated, tenderness, and erythematous. Which of the following is the best management?
A. Initiation of intravenous ampicillin
B. Initiation of intravenous heparin
C. Placement of a warm compress on the wound
D. Opening of the …show more content…
A 22-year-old woman who underwent cesarean delivery has persistent fever of 38.8℃, despite the use of triple antibiotic therapy (ampicillin, gentamicin, and clindamycin). The urinalysis, wound, breasts, and uterine fundus are normal on examination. A CT scan of the pelvis is suggestive of septic pelvic thrombophlebitis. Which of the following is the best therapy for this condition?
A. Hysterectomy
B. Discontinue antibiotic therapy and initiate intravenous heparin
C. Change antibiotics therapy and begin intravenous heparin
D. Surgical embolectomy
E. Streptokinase therapy

9. A 24-year-old primigravid woman, who is intent on breast-feeding, decides on a home delivery. Immediately after the birth of a 4.1kg infant, the patient bleeds massively from extensive vaginal and cervical lacerations. She is brought to the nearest hospital in shock. Over 2 hours, 9 units of blood are transfused, and the patient’s blood pressure returns to a reasonable level. A hemoglobin value the next day is 7.5 g/dl, and 3 units of packed red blood cells are given. The most likely late sequela to consider in this woman is which of the following?
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Stein-Leventhal syndrome
C. Sheehan syndrome
D. Simmonds syndrome
E. Cushing