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06/06/2016

MockBank ­ United India Insurance 2016 Generalist AO Mock Test­ 1

Duration: 120 Minutes
Total Marks: 200.0000

United India Insurance 2016 Generalist AO Mock Test­ 1
Reasoning Ability In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the coding and mark the letter of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (E) i.e. 'None of these' as your answer.
Letter : D O U S P N E L T W Q K Z
Digit/Symbol Code : 2 @ 9 4 # % 3 8 5 1 $ 6 + Conditions­
(i) If the first and the last letters are vowels then first letter is coded by the code of third letter.
(ii) If the first letter is vowel and the last letter is consonant then both codes are to be interchanged.
(iii) If there is no any vowel in the group then third letter is coded by the code of fifth letter. 1.

ESNQTO
A

%4$ @%
5

B

%$ @4%
5

C

%4% $ @
5

D

% $ @%4
5

E

None of these

Ans.

C

Sol.

E S N Q T O Condition (i)
% 4 % $ 5 @

2.

EEKETZ
A

+36353

B

35363+

C

+63533

D

35336+

E

None of these

Ans.

A

Sol.

E E K E T Z Condition (ii)
+ 3 6 3 5 3

3.

PNTTSZ
A

#%54+4

B

#%454+

C

454+#%

D

#%4+54

E

None of these

Ans.

B

Sol.

P N T T S Z Condition (iii)
# % 4 5 4 +

4.

DZTQLN
A

2%+5$
8

B

2+5%$
8

C

5$ %2+
8

D

2+8$ %
8

E

None of these

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Ans.

D

Sol.

Condition (iii)
Code of the arrangement is 2+8$ %
8

5.

OPWETE
A

1@1353

B

@11353

C

1@3531

D

@35311

E

None of these

Ans.

E

Sol.

O P W E T E
1 # 1 3 5 3

In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between â trong" arguments and â eak" arguments. â trong" s w S arguments must be both important and directly related to the question. â eak" arguments may not be directly related to the, question and may be of
W

minor importance or may be related to the trivial aspects of the question.
Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered I, II and III. You have to decide which is the argument(s) is/are â trong" and indicate s your answer accordingly. 6.

Should the Govt. restrict use of electricity for each household depending upon the requirement?
Arguments :
I. Yes, this will help government tide over the problem of inadequate generation of electricity.
II. No, every citizen has right to consume electricity, as per their requirement as they pay for using electricity.
III. No, the Govt. does not have the machinery to put such a restriction on use of electricity.
A

Only I is strong

B

Only II is strong

C

Only I and II are strong

D

Only II and III are strong

E

All I, II and III are strong

Ans.

C

Sol.

Some problems of unsfficient production of electricity should be solved to save the electricity. Hence argument I is strong. Argument II is also strong because every citizen pay electricity bill how much he consume. It is assumed that government has no right to control the use of electricity. Hence argument III is not strong.

7.

Should the Govt. order closure of all educational institutions for a month to avoid fast spreading of the contagious viral infection ?
Arguments :
I. No, closure of educational institution alone is not the solution for curbing spread of viral infection.
II. No, students will visit crowded places like malls,markets, playgrounds etc. in more numbers and spread the disease, as they Will have lot of spare time at their disposal.
III. Yes, young persons are more prone to get affected by the viral infection and hence they should remain in doors.
A

None is strong

B

Only I is strong

C

Only III is strong

D

Only I and II are strong

E

All I, II and III are strong

Ans.

B

Sol.

Only argument I is strong because closure of educational institution alone is not the solution for curbing spread of viral infection.

8.

Should the Govt. ban export of all types of food grains for the next one year to tide over the unpredicted drought situation in the country ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, there is no other way to provide food to its citizen during the year.
II. No, the Govt. does not have its jurisdiction over private exporters for banning exporters.
III. Yes, the Govt. should not allow the exporters to export food grains and procure all the food grains hold by such exporters and make it available for home consumption.
A

Only I and II are strong

B

Only II and III are strong

C

Only I and III are strong

D

All I, II and III are strong

E

None of these

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Ans.

E

Sol.

Argument III is probably strong. Word any other way used in argument I made it invalid.

9.

Should there be a common syllabus for all subjects in graduate courses in all the universities across the country?
Arguments :
I. Yes, this is the only way to spring in Uniformity in the education system in the country.
II. Yes, it will help standardize the quality of graduation certificates being given by different universities in the country.
III. No, each university should have the autonomy to decide its syllabus based on the specific requirement of the university.
A

None is strong

B

Only I is strong

C

Only II is strong

D

Only I and II are strong

E

Only II and III are strong

Ans.

E

Sol.

Word 'only' made argument I invalid while argument II and III are strong

10.

Should all those students who failed in one or two subjects in HSC beâ allowed to take admission in degree courses and continue their study subject to their successfully passing in the supplementary examination ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, this will help the students to complete their education without a break of year.
II.Yes, this is a forward looking strategy to help the students and motivate them for higher studies.
III No, such students do not choose to continue their studies without having passed in all the subjects in HSC.
A

Only I is strong

B

Only II is strong

C

Only III is strong

D

Only either II or III and I are strong

E

None of these

Ans.

E

Sol.

Only argument I is strong. The time of students are remain from this . Argument (II) is also strong beause it is helpful to students to go is next class which inspires for higher education.

In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and III. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow­up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you' have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing. 11.

Statement : The members belonging to two local clubs occasionally fight with each other on the main road and block traffic movement.
Courses of action :
I. The local police station should immediately deploy police personnel round the clock on the main road.
II. Those involved in fighting should be identified and put behind bars.
III. The local administration should disband the management of the two clubs with immediate effect.
A

Only I and II follow

B

Only II and III follow

C

Only I and III follow

D

All I, II and III follow

E

None of these

Ans.

A

Sol.

Only action I and II is sufficient but action III is solid

12.

Statement : Many school buses have fitted CNG Kit without observing the safety guidelines properly. This results into some instances of these buses catching fire due to short circuit and endangering the lives of the school children.
Courses of action :
I. The regional transport authority should immediately carry out checks of all the school buses fitted with CNG kit.
II. The management of all the schools should, stop hiring buses fitted with CNG Kit.
III. The Govt. should issue a notification banning school buses for use of CNG Kit
A

Only I follows

B

Only II follows

C

Only III follows

D

Only I and III follow.

E

None of these

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Ans.

A

Sol.

Only action I is suffiient. It is given in the statement that those buses meet accident that is use CNG Kit without following the safety guidelines. Hence action II and III is not sufficient.

13.

Statement : Many students of the local school fell ill for the fourth time in a row in the last six months after consuming food prepared by the school canteen. Courses of action :
I. The school management should immediately terminateâ the contract of the canteen and ask for compensation. II. The school management should advise all the students not to eat food articles from the canteen.
III. The owner of the canteen should immediately be arrested for negligence.
A

None follows

B

Only II follows

C

Only III follows

D

Only I and II follow

E

Only II and III follow

Ans.

D

Sol.

The contract of the canteen should immediately be terminated to making the unhealthy food for fourth time in a row in the last six months. Only action I and II is sufficient for taking a decision.

14.

Statement : A sudden cloud burst over the island city resulted into unpredicted rainfall causing flood like situation in the entire area. Large number of people were caught unaware and were stranded on the road.
Courses of action:
I. The local administration should immediately put in place an action plan for avoiding such situation in future.
II. The local administration should immediately deploy personnel to help the stranded people to move to safer places.
III. The local administration should advise all the citizens not to venture out of the road till situation improves.
A

Only I follows

B

Only II follows

C

Only III follows

D

Only II and III follow

E

All I, II and III follow

Ans.

D

Sol.

Only action II and III are sufficient

15.

Statement : It is reported that during the last fortnight there has been three cases of near miss situation involving two aircraft over the busy city airport.
In all these cases both the aircrafts came perilously close to each other and could avoid collision as the pilots acted just in time.
Courses of action :
I. The pilots of all the six aircrafts involved in these incidents should immediately be de­rostered.
II. Some flights should be diverted to other airports for the next few months to decongest the sky over the city airport.
III. Air traffic controllers of the city airport should be sent for refresher courses in batches to prepare themselves to handle such pressure situation.
A

Only I follows

B

Only II follows

C

Only III follows

D

Only II and III follow

E

None of these

Ans.

C

Sol.

Only action III is sufficient and follows the statements.

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
Eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, W, X and Z are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them belongs to a different profession viz. Engineer, Architect, Dancer, Teacher, Lawyer, Manager, Actor and Doctor.
T sits third to right of the Doctor. Only two people sit between the Doctor and Z. Teacher and the Architect are immediate neighbours of each other.
Neither T nor Z is a Teacher or a Architect. Teacher is not an immediate neighbour of the Doctor. Engineer sits second to left of S. S is not an immediate neighbour of Z. The Engineer is an immediate neighbour of both Manager and the Actor. Actor sits third to right of R. R is not the Teacher. X sits to the immediate right of the Dancer. T is not the Dancer. Q is not an immediate neighbour of T. W is not an immediate neighbour of the Engineer. 16.

Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?
A

The Manager is an immediate neighbour of the Teacher

B

W sits second to right of P.

C

The Manager and the Architect are immediate neighbours of each other

D

The Dancer sits to the immediate left of the Doctor

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E

The Manager sits second to the left of P.

Ans.

D

Sol.

17.

Which of the following is R's profession?
A

Dancer

B

Engineer

C

Architect

D

Lawyer

E

Actor

Ans.

C

Sol.

18.

Who amongst the following sit exactly between the Doctor and Z?
A

Z and the Dancer

B

R and W

C

The Dancer and X

D

Q and X

E

S and the Manager

Ans.

E

Sol.

19.

Who amongst the following is the Manager?
A

X

B

Q

C

W

D

Z

E

T

Ans.

B

Sol.

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20.

Who amongst the following sits third to the left of S?
A

Engineer

B

W

C

T

D

Actor

E

R

Ans.

D

Sol.

21.

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A

Q ­ Dancer

B

W ­ Teacher

C

P ­ Engineer

D

T ­ Actor

E

X ­ Architect

Ans.

B

Sol.

22.

Who amongst the following is the Actor?
A

T

B

X

C

Z

D

W

E

P

Ans.

E

Sol.

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Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements.
Give answer­
1) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) If the data in either Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) If the data in neither Statement I nor II are sufficient to answer the question.
5) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 23.

Among P, Q, R, S and T sitting in a straight line, facing North, who sits exactly in the middle of the line?
I) P sits third to left of S. T is an immediate neighbour of P as well as R.
II) T sits second to left of S. Q is not an immediate neighbour of either T or S.
A

5

B

2

C

3

D

4

E

1

Ans.

A

Sol.

From Statement I alone,

where is Q sits that is unknown,
Whereas according to Statement II either S or T will sit in the middle of the line. using both the statements we can conclude that T is the middle of the line. 24.

Among five friends A, B, C, D and E, sitting around a circular table, facing the centre, who sits to the immediate right of A?
I) E sits third to right of D. A is not an immediate neighbour of D.
II) C sits second to left of B. A is not an immediate neighbour of C.
A

1

B

2

C

3

D

4

E

5

Ans.

A

Sol.

25.

Who amongst P, Q, R, S and T is the tallest?
I) P is taller than S and T but shorter than R. Q is taller than S.
II) T is taller than S. P is not the tallest.
A

1

B

2

C

3

D

4

E

5

Ans.

D

Sol.

From Statement I, R > P > S & T and Q is taller than S
From Statement II, T > S and P is not the tallest
Therefore even after using both the statements, R or Q > P > T > S or R > Q or P > T > S
Therefore, the data from both statements are not sufficient to determine the tallest of them all.

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26.

Is "EAST" the word formed after performing the following operations on a word containing these four letters?
I) There is only one letter between A and T. E is to the left of A.Word ends with T.
II) The word does not begin with T. There is only one letter between E and S. T is not an immediate neighbour of E.
A

1

B

2

C

3

D

4

E

5

Ans.

C

Sol.

From Statement I, E A _ T , Therefore,EAST is the word
From Statement II,E _ S T , Therefore,EAST is the word.

27.

Is C the grandmother of M?
I) C is the mother of D. D is the brother of M's father.
II) E is the mother of S. S is the sister of M. F is the aunt of S, is the only daughter of C.
A

1

B

2

C

3

D

4

E

5

Ans.

A

Sol.

From Statement I, C is mother of D and D is M's uncle as D is brother of M's father.
Therefore,C is grandmother of M.
From Statement II,E is mother of S who is M's sister.F is S and M's aunt.F is the only daughter of C.
So,only Statement I helps us to find the relationship and not statement II.

When an input line is given to a number arrangement machine its rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input and rearrangement given below.
Input: 618, 142, 211, 341, 521
Step I : 13, ­1, 2, 0, 4
Step II : 3, ­1, 2, 0, 4
Step III : 9, 1, 4, 0, 16
Step IV : 609, 141, 207, 341, 505
Step V : 10, 0, 0, 0, 0 and Step V is the last step. As per the rules followed in the above Input, give the answer of the following questions.
Input : 418, 217, 308, 112, 914 28.

Which number will be the third from either end of the step III?
A

1

B

4

C

8

D

64

E

None of these

Ans.

A

Sol.

Input ­ 418 217 308 112 914
Step I: 11, 8, 11, 2, 12 [(First digit + third digit) ­ second digit)]
(4+8) ­ 1
= 11
Step II. 1, 8, 1, 2, 2 (multiply of double digit 11 = 1 x 1 = 1)
Step III. 1 64, 1, 4, 4 (square of the digit)
Step IV. 417, 153, 307, 108, 910 [input ­ step (III) 418 ­ 1 = 417]
Step V. 10, 0, 10, 0, 10 [step I ­ step II] = 11­ 1 = 10

29.

How many steps will it take to complete the arrangement?
A

Four

B

Three

C

Five

D

Six

E

Seven

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Ans.

C

Sol.

Input ­ 418 217 308 112 914
Step I: 11, 8, 11, 2, 12 [(First digit + third digit) ­ second digit)]
(4+8) ­ 1
= 11
Step II. 1, 8, 1, 2, 2 (multiply of double digit 11 = 1 x 1 = 1)
Step III. 1 64, 1, 4, 4 (square of the digit)
Step IV. 417, 153, 307, 108, 910 [input ­ step (III) 418 ­ 1 = 417]
Step V. 10, 0, 10, 0, 10 [step I ­ step II] = 11­ 1 = 10

30.

Which number is the middle number in step IV ?
A

417

B

307

C

108

D

910

E

153

Ans.

B

Sol.

Input ­ 418 217 308 112 914
Step I: 11, 8, 11, 2, 12 [(First digit + third digit) ­ second digit)]
(4+8) ­ 1
= 11
Step II. 1, 8, 1, 2, 2 (multiply of double digit 11 = 1 x 1 = 1)
Step III. 1 64, 1, 4, 4 (square of the digit)
Step IV. 417, 153, 307, 108, 910 [input ­ step (III) 418 ­ 1 = 417]
Step V. 10, 0, 10, 0, 10 [step I ­ step II] = 11­ 1 = 10

31.

Which are the end numbers in last step?
A

0, 10

B

4,2

C

2,2

D

11,12

E

0,8

Ans.

A

Sol.

Input ­ 418 217 308 112 914
Step I: 11, 8, 11, 2, 12 [(First digit + third digit) ­ second digit)]
(4+8) ­ 1
= 11
Step II. 1, 8, 1, 2, 2 (multiply of double digit 11 = 1 x 1 = 1)
Step III. 1 64, 1, 4, 4 (square of the digit)
Step IV. 417, 153, 307, 108, 910 [input ­ step (III) 418 ­ 1 = 417]
Step V. 10, 0, 10, 0, 10 [step I ­ step II] = 11­ 1 = 10

32.

If in the step IV, of the given input, the digits are arranged in ascending order, which is the second highest number?
A

108

B

910

C

417

D

153

E

307

Ans.

C

Sol.

Input ­ 418 217 308 112 914
Step I: 11, 8, 11, 2, 12 [(First digit + third digit) ­ second digit)]
(4+8) ­ 1
= 11
Step II. 1, 8, 1, 2, 2 (multiply of double digit 11 = 1 x 1 = 1)
Step III. 1 64, 1, 4, 4 (square of the digit)
Step IV. 417, 153, 307, 108, 910 [input ­ step (III) 418 ­ 1 = 417]
Step V. 10, 0, 10, 0, 10 [step I ­ step II] = 11­ 1 = 10

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Seven children Zee, Yippee, Xon, Won, Vicky, Uma and Twish are sitting around a circle and facing towards the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Twish is to the immediate right of Won and second to the left of Yippee. Zee is third to the left of Won. Zee and Xon are immediate neighbours of each other. Vicky and Yippee are not immediate neighbours of Uma.

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33.

MockBank ­ United India Insurance 2016 Generalist AO Mock Test­ 1
Who is sitting fourth to the left of Yippee?
A

Twish

B

Uma

C

Zee

D

Xon

E

None of these

Ans.

B

Sol.

34.

Which of the following is true, regarding the seating arrangement?
A

Uma is second to the right of Twish.

B

Yippee is sitting between Zee and Won

C

Twish is infront of Xon.

D

Won is an immediate right of Uma.

E

None of these

Ans.

D

Sol.

35.

What is the position of Zee with respect to Twish?
A

Third to the right

B

Fourth to the left

C

Fourth to the right

D

Immediate left

E

Both (A) and (B) are true

Ans.

E

Sol.

36.

If Xon and Vicky interchange their positions from each other then who is sixth to the left of Vicky?
A

Twish

B

Won

C

Zee

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D

Xon

E

None of these

Ans.

E

Sol.

37.

If all children are sitting according to alphabetical order in anticlockwise direction starting from Uma then who is an immediate right of Xon?
A

Yippee

B

Vicky

C

Zee

D

Xon

E

None of these

Ans.

A

Sol.

38.

In each question given below three statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true (even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts.) Read the conclusions and decide which logically follows.
Statements :
All 8 are 9.
All 9 are 2.
Some 2 are 3.
Conclusions:
(I) Some 3 being 8 is a possibility.
(II) Some 2 are 8.
A

If only conclusion I follows.

B

If only conclusion II follows.

C

If either conclusion I or II follows.

D

If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

E

If both conclusions I and II follow.

Ans.

E

Sol.

39.

In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true (even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts). Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows.
Statements : Some kites are umbrellas. Some umbrellas are sticks.
Some pens are kites. All sticks are caps.
Conclusions: I. Some umbrellas are caps. II. Some caps are sticks.
III. Some sticks are pens.
A

Only I and II follow

B

Only I and III follow

C

Only II and III follow

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D

All I, II and III follow

E

None of these

Ans.

A

Sol.

40.

Two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusion can definitely be drawn from the given statement. Indicate your answer.
Statements:
All dogs are soft
All soft are pictures
Conclusion:
I. All dogs are pictures
II. All soft are dogs
III. All pictures are dogs
IV. Some pictures are soft
A

Only I and IV follow

B

Only II and III follow

C

Either II or III follows

D

Either II or IV follows

E

None of these

Ans.

A

Sol.

41.

A is two year older than B. B is two time of D and C age. If the total age of A,B and C is 27, what is the age of B?
A

7

B

9

C

10

D

11

E

15

Ans.

C

Sol.

According to question,
A=B+2,
B=2C=2D
A+B+C=27, 2B+C=25
5B=50, B=10

42.

From the given alternatives select the word which can not be formed using the letters of the given word.
COMPETITION
A

EMOTION

B

COME

C

TEMPT

D

NATION

E

None of these

Ans.

D

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Sol.

There is no 'A' in given word.

43.

From the given alternatives select the word which can be formed using the letters of the given word.
ORGANISATION
A

NOISE

B

ORGANISM

C

NATION

D

ANGER

E

None of these

Ans.

C

44.

Without changing the order of alphabet and using every alphabet only one time. How many independent meaningful word can be formed by dividing the word BEARING?
A

Two

B

Three

C

Four

D

More than five

E

None

Ans.

B

Sol.

Bear, EAR, RING

45.

In a certain code language, word 'PANIC' is written as 'KZMRX', How would 'OPERATION' be written in that code?
A

NKVIZGRNM

B

LKVIZGRLM

C

NKWIZGRLM

D

LKVGZHRLM

E

None of these

Ans.

B

Sol.

46.

If in the code PWRUO is written as 81639 and VTQUO is written as 24739, then how could RTVOP be written as ? A

67314

B

64298

C

59431

D

27543

E

None of these

Ans.

B

Sol.

PWRUO VTQUO
81639 24739
RTVOP
64298

47.

In a certain code, 'school is over' means '785', 'match is over' means '275', and 'school match' means '28'. Then by which number. would 'match' be represented? A

2

B

7

C

8

D

5

E

Cannot be determined

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Ans.

A

Sol.

school is over means 785...........................I match is over means 275...........................II school match means 28.............................III
Using III & II, we can conclude that match refers to 2

48.

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the following equation.
2*2*9*9*9*9
A

÷ + = ÷ +

B

+ ÷ = ÷ +

C

÷ ­ + = ­ ÷

D

÷ + = ÷ x

E

None of the above

Ans.

A

Sol.

2÷ 2 + 9 = 9 ÷ 9 + 9
1 + 9 = 1 + 9
10 = 10

49.

The following equations are solved on the basis of certain system. Find out the correct answer from the four alternatives applying that system.
4 + 5 x 9 / 3 = 354, 8 + 3 x 6 / 2 = 338, 7 + 4 x 6 / 2 = ?
A

647

B

347

C

264

D

346

E

473

Ans.

B

Sol.

4 + 5 x 9 / 3 = 4 + 5 x 3 = 354
8 + 3 x 6 / 2= 8 + 3 x 3 = 338
7+ 4 x 6 / 2 = 7 + 4 x 3 = 347

50.

The cost of five chairs and three tables is Rs. 3,110. Cost of one chair is Rs. 210 less than cost of one table. What is the cost of two tables and two chairs? A

1660

B

1670

C

1680

D

1690

E

None of these

Ans.

A

Sol.

If C.P. of 1 chair be Rs. x, then C. P. of 1 table
Rs. (x + 210)
:. 5x + 3 (x + 210) = 3110
= 5x + 3x + 630 = 3110
= 8x = 3110 ­ 630 = 2480
:. x = 2480/8 =310
:. CP of two table and two chairs
= 2 (x + x + 210) = 4x + 420
= 4 x 310 + 420 = Rs. 1660

Quantitative Aptitude Study the following graph and table carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Percentage of Obese men Obese women and Obese children in a State in various years

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Total No of Men ,Women and Children in the state over the years
Years

Men

Women

Children

2004

54000

38000

15000

2005

75000

64000

21000

2006

63000

60000

12000

2007

66000

54000

16000

2008

70000

68000

20000

2009

78000

75000

45000

51.

What was the approximate average of obese men, obese women and obese children in the year 2007?
A

12,683

B

12,795

C

12,867

D

12,843

E

None of these

Ans.

E

Sol.

Required average
=

1
3

(

66000

×

35
100

+ 54000

×

25
100

+ 16000 ×

15
100

)

=

1
3

(23100 + 13500 + 2400) = 13000

52.

The number of obese men in the year 2009 was what percent of the men not suffering from obesity in the same year?
A

55

B

60

C

50.5

D

65.5

E

None of these

Ans.

B

Sol.

Number of obese men in the yrs. 2009
78000 ×

37.5
100

= 29250Number of

normal

men = (78000 − 29250) = 48750Required percentage =

29250
48750

× 100 = 60

53.

What was the respective ratio of the obese women in the year 2006 to the obese men in the year 2008?
A

6:07

B

7:05

C

5:8

D

48 : 77

E

None of these

Ans.

D

Sol.

Required

Ratio = 60000 ×

20
100

: 70000 ×

27.5
100

= 12000 : 19250 = 48 : 77

54.

What is the difference between the number of obese women and obese children together in the year 2006 and the number of obese men in the same year? A

5,475

B

5,745

C

5,045

D

5,075

E

None of these

Ans.

A

Sol.

Number of obese women and obese
Children

in

2006 =

60000 × 20
100

+

12000 × 25
100

= 15000Number of

obese men in

2006 =

63000 × 32.5
100

= 20475Required Difference = 20475 − 15000

55.

What was the total number of children not suffering from obesity in the year 2004 and 2005 together?

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A

4,350

B

31,560

C

4,530

D

31,650

E

None of these

Ans.

D

Sol.

Required number of children not suffering from obesity in the year 2004 and 2005 together
=(100­15)% of 15000 + (100­10)% of 21000
=

15000 × 85
100

+

21000 × 90
100

= 12750

+

18900 = 31650

Read the following information carefully to answer the questions given below.
A school consisting of a total of 1560 students has boys and girls in the ratio of 7 : 5 respectively. All the students are enrolled in different types of hobby classes, viz., Singing, Dancing and Painting. One­fifth of the boys are enrolled in only Dancing classes. Twenty per cent of the girls are enrolled in only Painting classes. Ten percent of the boys are enrolled in only Singing classes. Twenty­four per cent of the girls are enrolled in both Singing and
Dancing classes together. The number of girls enrolled in only Singing classes is two hundred per cent of the boys enrolled in the same. One­thirteenth of the boys are enrolled in all the three classes together. The respective ratio of boys enrolled in Dancing and Painting classes together to the girls enrolled in the same is 2 : 1 respectively. Ten per cent of the girls are enrolled in only Dancing classes whereas eight per cent of the girls are enrolled in both Dancing and Painting classes together. The remaining girls are enrolled in all the three classes together. The number of boys enrolled in Singing and Dancing classes together is fifty per cent of the number of girls enrolled in the same. The remaining boys are enrolled in only Painting classes. 56.

Total number of girls enrolled in Singing is approximately what per cent of the total number of students in the school?
A

26%

B

27%

C

8.5%

D

32%

E

None of these

Ans.

A

Sol.

Reqd %=(182+65+156)*100/1560=25.83 or 26%

57.

What is the respective ratio of the number of girls enrolled in only Painting classes to the number of boys enrolled in the same?
A

13 : 9

B

26:77

C

77:26

D

11 : 9

E

None of these

Ans.

B

Sol.

Required ratio=130:385=26:77

58.

Number of girls enrolled in only Dancing classes is what per cent of the boys enrolled in the same?
A

53

B

35.71

C

54.06

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D

47.63

E

None of these

Ans.

B

Sol.

Required%=65*100/182=35.71%

59.

What is the total number of boys who are enrolled in Dancing?
A

434

B

450

C

460

D

380

E

None of these

Ans.

A

Sol.

Total boys=78+182+104+70=434

60.

What is the total number of students enrolled in all the three classes together?
A

101

B

110

C

75

D

135

E

None of these

Ans.

D

Sol.

Required Number=70+65=135

61.

Find out what will come in place of question mark (?) in the following equations.
43% of 797 + ? = 888
A

545.29

B

551.86

C

556.72

D

559.68

E

None of these

Ans.

A

Sol.

?=888­{(43/100) x 797}=545.29

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62.

MockBank ­ United India Insurance 2016 Generalist AO Mock Test­ 1
Find out what will come in place of question mark (?) in the following equations.
862 +361 × 6 ÷ 4 ­ 223= ?
A

1163.5

B

1172.8

C

1179.6

D

1180.5

E

None of these

Ans.

D

Sol.

?=862 +361 × 6 ÷ 4 ­ 223= 1180.5

63.

Find out what will come in place of question mark (?) in the following equations.
1 ,2,5,14,41,?
A

120

B

119

C

122

D

125

E

None of these

Ans.

C

Sol.

The Pattern is...
1 x 3 ­1=2
2 x 3­1 =5
5 x 3­ 1=14
14 x 3 ­1=41
41 x 3 ­1=122

64.

Find out what will come in place of question mark (?) in the following equations.
(1.8 x 3.6) / 0.09 = ?
A

7.2

B

72

C

0.9

D

9

E

None of these

Ans.

B

Sol.

?=(1.8 x 3.6) / .09 =72

Directions : What will come in place of question­mark (?) in the following questions? 65.

2 4 + (16 − 3 × 4)
(6 + 3 2) ÷ (7 − 4)

= ?

A

4

B

5

C

7

D

20

E

None of these

Ans.

A

Sol.

2 4 + (16 − 3 × 4)
(6 + 3 2) ÷ (7 − 4)

=

20
5

=4

66.

(2.25)2 ÷ (3.375)4 x (1.5)5 = (1.5) ?­7
A

6

B

2

C

4

D

0

E

None of these

Ans.

C

Sol.

(1.5)^4 / (1.5)^12 x (1.5)^5 = (1.5)^(?­7)

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(1.5)^­8+5 = (1.5)^(?­7)
­3 = ? ­ 7
? =­3 + 7 = 4

67.

2
( 5 ­ √6) + (√3 + √10)2 = (?)3 ­ 40


A

8

B

4

C

3

D

6

E

None of these

Ans.

B

Sol.

5 + 6 +3 +10 = ?^3 ­ 40
24+40 = ?^3
?=4

68.

(√125.44 x 85 ÷ 8) ­ 11 = (?) 2 ÷ 3
A

2√6

B

√6

C

12

D

18

E

6

Ans.

D

Sol.

11.2 x 85 / 8 ­ 11 = (?^2 )/ 3
119­11 = (?^2)/3
108x3 = ?^2
? = 18

69.

68% of √2916 x 25 = ? + 189
A

728

B

718

C

729

D

739

E

None of these

Ans.

C

Sol.

0.68 x 54 x 25 = ? + 189
? = 729

Directions : What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.) 70.

38% of 568 + 16% of 1654 – 280 = ?
A

200

B

220

C

270

D

330

E

390

Ans.

A

Sol.

?=(38/100) x 568 + (16/100)x 1654 ­280=200

71.

8787 ÷ 77 x 92 = ? x 13
A

807

B

780

C

840

D

810

E

750

Ans.

A

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Sol.

? x 13 =(8787./77) x 92
?=807.59

72.

√7778 x √4678 ÷ √689 = ?
A

380

B

410

C

280

D

230

E

350

Ans.

D

Sol.

?=(88 x 68 )/26=230

73.

(56.15)2 ­ (24.9)2 ­ (11.9)2 = ?
A

2370

B

2460

C

2550

D

2680

E

2240

Ans.

A

Sol.

562 ­252 ­122=?
?=2367 =2370(approx)

74.

579/35 ÷ 17/2323 x 156/249 = ?
A

1416

B

1420

C

1480

D

1560

E

1680

Ans.

A

Sol.

?=579/35 x 2323/17 x 156/249 =1416

75.

The value of 0.98 3 + 0.02 3 + 3 ∗ 0.98 ∗ 0.2 − 1
A

1.98

B

1.09

C

1

D

0

E

None of these

Ans.

D

Sol.

By using Formulae(a + b) 3 = a 3 + b 3 + 3ab(a + b)
0.98 3 + 0.02 3 + 3 ∗ 0.98 ∗ 0.2 − 1 = (0.98 + 0.02) 3 − 1 = 0

76.

8(3.75) 3 + 1
7.5 2 − 6.5

=

A

5.5

B

6.5

C

8.5

D

9.5

E

None of these

Ans.

C

Sol.

By using

(

Formulaea 3 + b 3 = (a + b) a 3 + b 3 − ab

3

8(3.75) + 1
2

7.5 − 6.5

3

=

3

2 (3.75) + 1
2

(7.5) − 6.5

3

=

(7.5) + 1
2

(7.5) − 6.5

=

)

[(7.5 + 1)((7.5)

2

+ (1) 2 − 7.5 ∗ 1)

2

((7.5) − 6.5)

] = 8.5

77.

If p = 999 , then the value of

3

√p(p2 + 3p + 3) + 1

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A

1000

B

999

C

998

D

1002

E

None of these

Ans.

A

Sol.

√p(p2 + 3p + 3) + 1 = √p3 + 3p2 + 3p + 1

3

3

=

3

√(p + 1) 3

= (p + 1)

78.

Monthly incomes of two persons are in the ratio 5:4 and their expenditures are in the ratio 9:7. If each saves Rs. 500 per month, then what are their monthly income?
A

Rs. 4500, Rs. 3600

B

Rs. 4000, Rs. 2800

C

Rs. 3500, Rs. 2800

D

Rs. 5000, Rs, 4000

E

Rs 3000, Rs 2500

Ans.

D

Sol.

Let X be the income of the person and y be the expenditure
5x ­ 9y = 500 ......... (I) and 4x ­ 7y = 500 ..........(II)
From (I) and (II) y = 500 x = 1000
Their monthly income= Rs. 5000, Rs. 4000

79.

The ratio of ages of Keshav and Saurabh is 4 : 5 and that of Keshav and Hari is 5 : 6. If sum of ages of all the three is 69 years, what is the Saurabh's age? A

20 years

B

25 years

C

30 years

D

35 years

E

None of these

Ans.

B

Sol.

Saurabh

:

kehsav

:

hari

5

:

4

5

: 6Ratio =

25 : 20 : 24Saurabh ′ s age =

69

×

25
69

=

80.

A person's present age is two­fifth of the age of his mother. After 8 years, he will be one­half of the age of his mother. How old is the mother at present? A

38 years

B

40 years

C

56 years

D

64 years

E

60 years

Ans.

B

Sol.

Let the mother's present age be x years.
Then, the persons present age = (2/5 x) years.
After 8 years
(2/5x+8) = 1/2(x+8)
(2/5x)+8 = (x/2)+(8/2)
2/5x­(x/2)=8/2­(8)
4x­5x/10=­8/4
­x/10 = ­8/4 x= 40 hence present age of mother = 40 years

81.

In an annual examination Kavish got 777 marks out of 1045. What is his approximate percentage in the annual examination?
A

66

B

82

C

70

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D

. 61

E

74

Ans.

E

Sol.

Required Percent =(777/1045) x 100=74 (approx)

82.

Two candidates contest an election .If one got 650 votes which was 52% of votes, what was the total number of votes?
A

1200

B

1300

C

1400

D

1600

E

None of these

Ans.

E

Sol.

Total Votes=(650 x100) /52 =1250

83.

A sum of money is divided between two persons in the ratio of 17 : 15. if the share of one person is Rs 80 less than that of the other. What is the sum?
A

Rs 540

B

Rs 320

C

Rs 960

D

Rs 1280

E

None of these

Ans.

D

Sol.

Let the shares are 17X and 15X
17X ­ 15X = 80
X = 40
Sum = 32X = 1280

84.

If cost price is 89% of selling price then find the profit %.
A

16.40%

B

12.30%

C

13.90%

D

14.85%

E

17.30%

Ans.

B

Sol.

let selling price = Rs 100
So,cost price will be Rs 89
Profit %={(100­89)/89} x 100=12.35%

85.

A shopkeeper charges 28% more from a customer on an article. If customer paid Rs 4544, what is the cost price of the article?
A

Rs 3550

B

Rs 3500

C

Rs 3450

D

Rs 3400

E

RS 3600

Ans.

A

Sol.

Cost price = 4544 x

100
128

=Rs 3550

86.

In an examination, a student is awarded four marks for correct answer and one mark is deducted for a wrong answer. Student attempts 75 question and secures 125 marks. What is the number of his correct answers? A

35

B

40

C

42

D

48

E

45

Ans.

B

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Sol.

let correct no question =x then
4x ­ 1(75 ­x) =125 x =40

87.

A round table conference is to be held among 12 delegates. In how many ways can they be seated if two particular delegates are always to sit together? A

12!

B

12! × 2!

C

10! × 2!

D

10!

E

None of these

Ans.

C

Sol.

Since two have to sit together, we are left with only 10 places to shuffle with.
Hence, 10! and this can be clockwise or anti­clockwise, so multiply it by 2!
10! x 2!

88.

The length of a rectangle is increased by 20 percent and its width is increased by fifty percent. By what percent does the area increase?
A

70

B

100

C

80

D

170

E

130

Ans.

C

Sol.

Let L be the original length and W the original width. The area of the rectangle is L*W.
By increasing the Length to 1.2*L and the width to 1.5*W the new area is:
(1.2)L*(1.5)W = (1.2*1.5)(L*W) = 1.8*(L*W)= 1.8*A = A + .80*A
So the answer is 80

89.

Three­fifth of a number is equal to 70% of another number. What is the ratio between the first number and the second number respectively?
A

7 : 6

B

7 : 8

C

3 : 4

D

4 : 7

E

None of these

Ans.

A

Sol.

Let

the no

of

x and

y respectivelyx

×

3
5

= y×

70
100

=

x y =

7
10

×

5
3

= 7: 6

90.

In how many different ways can the letters of the word "EQUATION" be arranged?
A

40320

B

20160

C

13440

D

10080

E

None of these

Ans.

A

Sol.

Total ways = 8! = 40320

91.

An amount of money grows upto Rs 4000 in 2 years and up to Rs 8000 in 3 years on compound interest. What is the sum?
A

Rs 1600

B

Rs 1000

C

Rs 1200

D

Rs 2400

E

None of these

Ans.

B

Sol.

4000 = P(1 + r/100)^2­­­­­1
8000 = P(1 + r/100)^3­­­­­2 on solving1 and 2..

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P = 1000

92.

In a function 18 players are there, out of them 7 are cricketers, 6 are footballers, and 5 are boxers. In how many ways they can sit in a row so that all players of same sports sit together?
A

3! 7! 6! 5!

B

7! 6! 5!

C

3! 18!

D

17!

E

None of these

Ans.

A

Sol.

Considering each sport as one entity, there are 3 entities to be arranged.
So 3!.
Within each entity, there are players who shuffle within themselves so 7! x 6! x 5!
So total no.of ways = 3! 7! 6! 5!

93.

If A can do 1/4 of the work in 4 days and B can do 1/8 of the work in 3 days. how much will A get if both work together and are paid Rs.4500 in all?
A

Rs.1800

B

Rs.2400

C

Rs.2700

D

Rs.2900

E

None of these

Ans.

C

Sol.

Whole work is done by A in (4x4) days = 16 days
Whole work is done by B in (8x3) days = 24 days
A's wages : B's wages = A's 1 day's work : B's 1 day's work
= 1/16 : 1/24 = 3 :2
A's share = Rs.(3/5 x 4500) = 2700

94.

How long does a train 110 metres long running at the speed of 72 km/hr take to cross a bridge 132 metres in length?
A

9.8 sec

B

12.1 sec

C

12.42 sec

D

14.3 sec

E

None of these

Ans.

B

Sol.

Speed = 72 x(5/18) m/sec = 20 m/sec.
Total distance covered = (110 + 132)m = 242 m.
So Required time = (242/20) = 12.1 sec.

95.

The perimeters of two squares are 40 cm. and 32 cm. Find the perimeter of a third square whose area is equal to the difference of the area of the two squares? A

36 cm

B

25 cm.

C

24 cm.

D

29 cm.

E

49 cm.

Ans.

C

Sol.

According to Question.
4a1= 40 cm => a1 = 10 cm
4a2 = 32 cm => a2 = 8 cm
Area difference = 100 ­ 64 = 36
=> a3 = 6 cm
Perimeter = 4a3 = 24cm

Study the graphs carefully to answer the following question:
Total number of children in 6 different schools and the percentage of girls in them

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96.

What is the percentage of boys in schools R and U together? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal)
A

78.55%

B

77.59%

C

76.28%

D

75.83%

E

None of these

Ans.

D

Sol.

Number of boys in schools R and U together = 72.5% of 2000 +82.5% of 1000
=725 x 2+ 825
=1450+825=2275
Percentage=

2275

×

total children

100

Hence answer is 75.83 % 97.

What is the total number of boys in school T?
A

500

B

600

C

750

D

850

E

None of these

Ans.

C

Sol.

The number of boys in school T = 60% of 1250
= 6 125 = 750

98.

The total number of students in school R is approximately what percent of the total number of students in school S?
A

89%

B

75%

C

78%

D

82%

E

94%

Ans.

A

Sol.

total no of students in school R=

2000
2250

× 100 =

800
9

=88.88......... 89% 99.

What is the average number of boys in schools P and Q together?
A

1425

B

1575

C

1450

D

1625

E

None of these

Ans.

B

Sol.

average =

60percent of 2500

+ 55percent of 3000
2

=

( 60

× 25 + 55 × 30 )
2

= 1500 + 1650 =

3150
2

= 1575

100.

What is the respective ratio of the number of girls in school P and the number of girls in school Q?
A

27:20:00

B

17:21

C

20:27

D

21:17

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E

None of these

Ans.

C

Sol.

number of girls in school P=40/100 * 2500=1000 number of girls in school q=45/100 * 3000=1350 ratio=1000/1350 =20/27

English Language Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
At the heart of the Indo­Pak conflict are two constants: one, the political usefulness of a war­like situation in both countries, and two, mutually sustained mindsets which recognise war as the only real solution. India and Pakistan are all the time vulnerable to the urge of fight. Peace­time life carries sense of drudgery for millions of people in both countries. Military­preparedness and the news of impending war have the unfortunate capacity to give both the young nation­states an instant sense of purpose.
One can' help recalling time when India derived a sense of purpose by acting as a force for world peace. During the seventies, it started to lose that t self­identity, even as the failure of the national development project of the sixties became all too apparent. A new national identity began to take shape, alongside the models available in the cold war­ridden world. Hunger, poverty and illiteracy gradually ceased to inspire the state planning apparatus.
The desired self­image of a military power served a cohesive political role.
Pakistan' journey to the bomb was different, and its problem of self­identity more real and difficult. The separation of Bangladesh pushed Pakistan s towards nurturing a West Asian identity, a socially divisive process which encouraged Islamic fundamentalism under Zia' regime. A dangerous s confluence of militarism and fundamentalism emerged as the only nation­building device left.
Both countries have used education and the media to reinforce hostile mindsets. In Pakistan, school textbooks openly teach prejudice towards
Hinduism and equate India with Hindus, belittling Indiaâ struggle for secularism. Elite public schools have a better record, but their products either s migrate or learn to live on the margins of a fluid, routinely manipulated public space. That journey to the margin of a rapidly shrinking political space is just beginning for the Indian elite whose children have been dutifully raised on the staple of scientific temper in a corrupt, chaotic political milieu. The simplistic, secular textbooks they have studied fail to contextualise Partition in a rational universe, leaving adequate room for the belief that Pakistan is neither a legitimate historical entity, nor a functioning nation. Here lie the roots of a common elite perception that India can emulate what Israel has done to the defenseless Palestine.
The West' concern for peace in South Asia is touching, particularly in view of the glorious opportunity it has always spotted and used here for the sale s of arms. Senior Dutch sociologist WF Wertheim has rightly bemoaned the absence of a peace economy in the lone superpower the world has now. If only rich countries would consider stopping the sale of expensive weapons to poor countries, they can bring about the stability and peace they love so much. It is the arms sold by the US, UK, Russia, France and a few others that have brutalised life across the Third World from Chile to Liberia to the
Philippines. Yet, for India and Pakistan, a phased disengagement with the arms trade offers the only realistic countdown to peace. 101.

War­like situation between India and Pakistan
A

is a creation of political organizations of both the countries.

B

gives mileage to different political outfits in both the countries.

C

keeps both the countries engaged in diplomacy

D

is the creation of external forces

E

has been beneficial for the people of both the countries.

Ans.

B

102.

What keeps the lamp of India­Pakistan hostility burning?
A

high military­preparedness of both the countries

B

insurgency and cross­border terrorism

C

people love for nationalism in both the countries s D

sidelining the core issue

E

None of these

Ans.

E

103.

Why does peace­time life bore a large number of people in India and Pakistan?
A

The mindsets of people in both the countries is against the peace theory as they see ultimate solution to the problem in war

B

Peace­time life comes rarely to the people of both the countries, so they cannot enjoy it.

C

They are unable to decipher the meaning of peace.

D

They know the fact that peace is not going to last long

E

None of these

Ans.

A

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104.

MockBank ­ United India Insurance 2016 Generalist AO Mock Test­ 1
What influenced India in the seventies to uplift its military power?
A

the failure of its national development project

B

its giving up as a force for world peace

C

issues of hunger, poverty and illiteracy taking backstage

D

exhibition and building of military power by different countries in that cold war era

E

None of these

Ans.

D

105.

According to the author, Pakistan had to embrace the combination of militarism and fundamentalism because
A

Bangladesh was separated from it.

B

it wanted to emerge as a superpower in West Asia

C

it was the only option left before it to save its self­ image and rebuild the nation

D

fundamentalist forces had become much powerful

E

fundamentalists had controlled the military

Ans.

C

106.

Why is it that students of elite public schools in Pakistan who get realistic education cannot change the public opinion?
A

They are very little in number and are often sidelined, finding it very hard to have a say in the system

B

They do not want to take politics as a career

C

They have nothing to do with their country as they migrate to other countries

D

They are forced to remain silent over the issue of any political debate

E

None of these

Ans.

A

107.

How have the rich and mighty countries promoted war­ like situation in the third world countries?
A

by promoting their own vested interests

B

by selling arms to these countries and leading them into blind arms race

C

by dividing them in the name of race and religion

D

by supporting their cause of struggle and providing them weapons without any cost

E

None of these

Ans.

B

108.

Choose the word which is same in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage.
DRUDGERY
A

confusion

B

anger

C

defeat

D

monotony

E

illusion

Ans.

D

Sol.

Definition of drudgery
n. ­ The act of drudging; disagreeable and wearisome labor; ignoble or slavish toil

109.

Choose the word which is same in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage.
MILIEU
A

system

B

parties

C

environs

D

fraternity

E

class

Ans.

C

Sol.

MILIEU a person's social environment.

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110.

MockBank ­ United India Insurance 2016 Generalist AO Mock Test­ 1
Choose the word which is same in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage.
BEMOANED
A

observed

B

scrutinised

C

examined

D

discussed

E

complained

Ans.

E

Sol.

BEMOANED express discontent or sorrow over (something).

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence, the number of that part will be the answer. If there is No error, the answer is (5). i.e. 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.) 111.

Nuclear waste will still being (1)/ radioactive even after twenty thousand years, (2)/ so it must be disposed (3) / off very carefully. (4) / No error (5)
A

1

B

2

C

3

D

4

E

5

Ans.

A

Sol.

Nuclear waste is still being

112.

My friend lived at the top (1)/ of an old house (2)/ which attic had been (3)/ converted into a flat. (4)/ No error (5)
A

1

B

2

C

3

D

4

E

5

Ans.

C

Sol.

Whose attic had been

113.

A public safety advertising (1)/ campaign in Russia (2)/ hope to draw attention (3)/ of pedestrian crossing the road. (4)/ No error (5)
A

1

B

2

C

3

D

4

E

5

Ans.

C

Sol.

here, subject i.e. A public safety advertising campaign is singular. Hence, hopes to draw attention.. should be used here.

Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark 'E' as the answer. 114.

He never has and ever will take such strong measures.
A

had taken and will ever take

B

has and never will take

C

had and ever will take

D

had taken nor will ever take

E

No correction required

Ans.

D

115.

Anyone interested in the use of computers can learn much if you have access to a personal computer.
A

he or she has access

B

access can be available

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C

they have access

D

one of them have access

E

No correction required

Ans.

A

116.

Later he became unpopular because he tried to lord it on his followers.
A

to lord it over on

B

to lord over

C

to lord it over

D

to lord it for

E

No correction required

Ans.

C

117.

Ramesh is as tall if not, taller than Mahesh.
A

not so tall but as

B

as tall as, if not

C

not as tall but

D

as if not

E

No correction required

Ans.

B

118.

All the allegations levelled against him were found to be baseless.
A

levelling with

B

levelled for

C

level with

D

level against

E

No correction required

Ans.

E

Directions: Some proverbs/idioms are given below together with their meanings. Choose the correct meaning of proverb/idiom, If there is no correct meaning given, E (i.e.) 'None of these' will be the answer. 119.

To hit the nail right on the head
A

To teach someone a lesson

B

To announce one's fixed views

C

To destroy one's reputation

D

To do the right thing

E

None of these

Ans.

D

120.

To leave someone in the lurch
A

To desert someone in his difficulties

B

To come to compromise with someone

C

Constant source of annoyance to someone

D

To put someone at ease

E

None of these

Ans.

A

121.

A man of straw
A

A very active person

B

A man of no substance

C

A worthy fellow

D

An unreasonable person

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E

None of these

Ans.

B

In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out, the appropriate word in each case.
Multinational companies are big international business houses having worldwide business (1) They work in many countries simultaneously and enjoy an (2) hold on the (3) of the country. In developing countries like India, they have a special, rather monopolistic, (4) which cannot be (5) easily. But these companies do not (6) their activities only to the economic field. They (7) them to the political and social fields. The method of the working of these companies is the same. They make all (8) promises to boost the economy of the country by supplying modern technology. In most cases they confine themselves to promoting consumer items in developing countries and earn (9) profits which they (10) to their parent country.

122.

Choose the option for (1)
A

areas

B

interests

C

scenarios

D

strategies

E

aspects

Ans.

B

123.

Choose the option for (2)
A

enormous

B

affective

C

enlarge

D

accepted

E

important

Ans.

A

124.

Choose the option for (3)
A

revelry

B

festivity

C

economy

D

outlook

E

politics

Ans.

C

125.

Choose the option for (4)
A

arrangement

B

location

C

setting

D

locality

E

position

Ans.

E

126.

Choose the option for (5)
A

cracked

B

broken

C

split

D

challenged

E

solved

Ans.

D

127.

Choose the option for (6)
A

confine

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B

release

C

liberate

D

discharge

E

separate

Ans.

A

128.

Choose the option for (7)
A

contract

B

minimize

C

curtail

D

extend

E

shrink

Ans.

D

129.

Choose the option for (8)
A

broken

B

attractive

C

striking

D

realistic

E

amazing

Ans.

B

130.

Choose the option for (9)
A

much

B

some

C

little

D

mass

E

huge

Ans.

E

131.

Choose the option for (10)
A

pay

B

deposit

C

remit

D

reimburse

E

dump

Ans.

C

In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of words denoted by numbers (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make it meaningfully complete. 132.

It is clear that the US does not ________ itself answerable to world ________.
A

consider, opinion

B

bow, order

C

adhere, demand

D

deemed, favour

E

recognise, fraternity

Ans.

A

133.

Terrorism is a ________ that still ________ us.
A

menace, strike

B

problem, evades

C

burden, load

D

misery, pain

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E

bane, afflicts

Ans.

E

134.

Decades of uncontrolled illegal ________ from Bangladesh ________ the proportions of a demographic invasion years ago.
A

occupancy, managed

B

flow, resulted

C

settlement, changed

D

immigration, acquired

E

entry, drove

Ans.

D

135.

While modernising India, the rural ________ has to be taken into ________ first.
A

folk, considered

B

area, confidence

C

population, care

D

populace, priority

E

sector, view

Ans.

C

Rearrange the following six sentences/group of sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below :
1. To his surprise, a little honeybee came before his throne and said, "Of all the gifts you could give me, only one will do. I'd like the power to inflict great pain whenever I choose to."
2. I hereby give you a sharp sting. But, I am sure you will use this weapon carefully only in times of anger and strife.
3. "What an awful wish !" said great Zeus, " ut I will grant it".
B

4. And to this day, the little honeybee dies after it stings.
5. One day, Zeus, the King of Mount Olympus, was giving out gifts to beasts, birds and insects.
6. " ou will get to use it only once, for using it will cost you your life."
Y

136.

Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
A

4

B

6

C

2

D

5

E

3

Ans.

C

Sol.

5. One day Zeus, the King of Mount. Olympus, was giving out gifts to beasts and birds and insects one day.
1.To his surprise, the little honeybee came before his throne and said, "Of all the gifts you could give to me, only one will do. I'd like the power to inflict great pain whenever I choose to."
3."What an awful wish!" said great Zeus, "I will grant it.
2.I hereby give you a sharp sting. But, I'm sure you'll use this weapon carefully in times of anger and strife.
6.You'll only get to use it once, for using it will cost you your life."
4.And to this day, the little honeybee dies after it stings.
The correct order is " 5 1 3 2 6 4"

137.

Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement ?
A

1

B

4

C

6

D

2

E

5

Ans.

A

Sol.

The correct order is " 5 1 3 2 6 4"

138.

Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?
A

5

B

2

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C

4

D

3

E

6

Ans.

A

Sol.

The correct order is " 5 1 3 2 6 4"

139.

Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement ?
A

1

B

4

C

6

D

5

E

3

Ans.

B

Sol.

The correct order is " 5 1 3 2 6 4"

140.

Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
A

5

B

4

C

2

D

3

E

6

Ans.

E

Sol.

The correct order is " 5 1 3 2 6 4"

General Awareness
Sol.

141.

Recently, the Union Cabinet has permitted states with adequate finance to borrow, how much additional % of their GDP in order to help them to meet their development needs?
A

0.9%

B

0.4%

C

0.5%

D

0.7%

E

None of the above

Ans.

C

Sol.

As per the recommendations of the Fourteenth Finance Commission (FFC), Union cabinet has permitted states with adequate finance to borrow an extra 0.5% of their GDP, beyond the 3% stipulated by FFC in order to help them to meet their development needs.

142.

Which of the following has launched an innovation centre to promote the culture of innovation among its undergraduate students ?
A

IIT­K

B

IIT­D

C

IIT­B

D

IIT­A

E

IIT­Kanpur

Ans.

A

Sol.

IIT­Kharagpur has launched an innovation centre to promote the culture of innovation among a wide cross section of students and faculty with support from its alumni and the industry. The Innovations Centre comprises a Design Facility and Tinkering Laboratory.

143.

Recently announcement has been made to establish a Film Facilitation Office at NDFC premises. NDFC head office is situated at which place ?
A

New Delh

B

Mumbai

C

Ranchi

D

Pune

E

Chennai

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Ans.

B

144.

The Basohli bridge is located on which of the following rivers?
A

Ganga

B

Kaveri

C

Brahamaputra

D

Ravi

E

None of these

Ans.

D

Sol.

Recently, the Union Defence Minister Manohar Parrikar has inaugurated the cable stayed­bridge on river Ravi at Basholi area of Kathua district of Jammu province. The 592­metre­long Basholi bridge is first of its kind in North India. It will provide close connectivity between the three states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Punjab. The other three cable­stayed bridges are of India are Hooghly
Bridge at Kolkata, Naini Bridge in Allahabad and Rajiv Gandhi Sea Link in Mumbai.

145.

2016 Asian Nations Cup Chess tournament title has been clinched by which of the following country?
A

Iran

B

India

C

Vietnam

D

China

E

Russia

Ans.

B

Sol.

2016 Asian Nations Cup Chess tournament title has been clinched by Indian men by defeating Vietnam in the final round by 3­1 score held in Abu Dhabi.

146.

National Association of Software and Services Companies (NASSCOM) has designated which of the following as its Chairman for 2016­2017?
A

Debashis Chatterjee

B

Rekha Menon

C

B V R Mohan Reddy

D

C P Gurnani

E

Rajan Anandan

Ans.

D

Sol.

NASSCOM has designated C P Gurnani as its Chairman for 2016­2017. He will succeed B V R Mohan Reddy.

147.

Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) has commissioned a season wise tiltable canal top solar PV plant at which of the following?
A

Guntur

B

Nellore

C

Bhimavaram

D

Kakinada

E

Visakhapatnam

Ans.

C

Sol.

Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) has commissioned a seasonwise tiltable canal top solar PV plant at Bhimavaram in Andhra
Pradesh.

148.

In which sport will India host the U­17 World Cup?
A

Shooting

B

Hockey

C

Kabaddi

D

Football

E

Cricket

Ans.

D

Sol.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/2017_FIFA_U­17_World_Cup (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/2017_FIFA_U­17_World_Cup)

149.

On the sidelines of Digital India initiatives, which of the following software and solutions major will set up its first incubation center in India?
A

EMC

B

Oracle

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C

SAP

D

IBM

E

TCS

Ans.

B

Sol.

As part of its plans to expand and support Digital India initiatives, software and solutions major Oracle announced to set up its first incubation centre in country.

150.

The Nagjee International Club Football Tournament will be held in which state?
A

Kerala

B

Nagaland

C

West Bengal

D

Kolkata

E

Karnataka

Ans.

A

Sol.

The Brazilian football legend Ronaldinho Gaucho will inaugurate the Nagjee International Club Football Tournament in Kerala, which is being revived after a gap of 21 years.

151.

In context to India's defence system, “Pinaka II" refers which one of the following?
A

Multi­Barrel Rocket Launcher (MBRL) system

B

Anti­Tank Guided Missile (ATGM)

C

Anti­Radiation Missile (ARM)

D

Nuclear­capable ballistic missile

E

None of these

Ans.

A

Sol.

The Indian Army has successfully completed user­assisted trials of Pinaka II, a multi­barrel rocket launcher (MBRL) system, at Pokhran field firing range in Rajasthan, India. The trials are conducted by the Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE),
Pune, a Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) laboratory. The system features six launcher vehicles with 12 rockets each. 152.

RBI permitted which organisation to work as business correspondents of banks?
A

India Today

B

Times Group

C

NBFC

D

BBC

E

None of these

Ans.

C

Sol.

RBI permits NBFCs to work as Business Correspondents of banks:
With a view to achieve financial inclusion, the Reserve Bank of India has allowed Non­Banking Finance Companies to operate as
Business Correspondents (BCs) of banks, permitting them to offer limited services.
Banks will be allowed to work with non­deposit taking NBFCs as BCs.
Note:
The RBI took into account recommendations of Nachiket Mor Committee while reviewing the existing guidelines on the appointment of
BCs.

153.

The bronze bust of the ancient Indian mathematician­astronomer Aryabhata unveiled at the headquarter of which of the following ?
A

UNODC

B

UNWTO

C

UNICEF

D

UNESCO

E

None of these

Ans.

D

Sol.

Union Minister of HRD unveiled a bronze bust of the ancient Indian mathematician­astronomer Aryabhata, at UNESCO Headquarters in
Paris during “International Conference on the Zero".

154.

Banking Ombudsman have jurisdiction over
A. Commercial banks (scheduled and non scheduled, public and private)
B. Regional rural banks
C. Scheduled primary co­operative banks

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D. NBFCs (BO's Jurisdiction limited to “loan” part.)
A

Only A

B

Only B

C

Only C

D

All are true

E

None of these

Ans.

D

Sol.

Banking Ombudsman (BO) Scheme applies to whole of India (including Jammu and Kashmir),and they have jurisdiction over all the given options in the question.

155.

Any continuing payment with a fixed total annual amount is called?
A

Appraisal

B

Embezzlement

C

Fiduciary

D

Lien

E

Annuity

Ans.

E

Sol.

Please see here : Any continuing payment with a fixed total annual amount is called annuity. (http://www.thehindu.com/todays­paper/tp­ national/india­vietnam­sign­prisoner­exchange­treaty/article5306996.ece) 156.

The Central Government gave its stamp of approval to the nation's first Metrino Pod project in which of the following?
A

Pune

B

Mumbai

C

Gurgaon

D

Jaipur

E

Raipur

Ans.

C

Sol.

The Central Government gave its stamp of approval to the nation's first Metrino Pod project – A Personal Rapid Transit (PRT) network in
Gurgaon, Haryana.

157.

Who is the author of the book titled “Fixed! Cash and Corruption in Cricket"?
A

Shantanu Guha Ray

B

Amish Tripathi

C

Subroto Bagchi

D

Jhumpa Lahiri

E

None of these

Ans.

A

158.

Who is the author of the book titled “Nathuram Godse – The Story of an Assassin"?
A

Damodar Naik

B

Deepankar Kukrehjha

C

Anup Ashok Sardesai

D

Vijai Sardesai

E

None of these

Ans.

C

Sol.

The book titled “Nathuram Godse – The Story of an Assassin" by Anup Ashok Sardesai was released on 30 January 2016.
The book narrates the story of Nathuram Vinayakrao Godse and his brother who suffered a life of immense mental torture. It also speaks of the family of Godse who faced countless abuses and humiliations.

159.

United Kingdom's prestigious Founders Award 2016 has been conferred upon which of the following?
A

Vikram Patel

B

Rami Ranger

C

Prakash Lohia

D

Mother Teresa

E

Narendra Modi

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Ans.

D

160.

“Sajibu Cheiraoba” is the festival, of which of the following Indian city?
A

Mizoram

B

Nagaland

C

Assam

D

Manipur

E

Bihar

Ans.

D

161.

The Union Government recently divested its 5 percent stake in which company?
A

Oil And Natural Gas Corporation

B

Coal India Limited

C

Steel Authority of India Limited

D

National Thermal Power Corporation

E

None of these

Ans.

C

162.

If an organization wishes to venture into Insurance Business it has to obtain a licence first from which of the following ?
A

Indian Banks Association (IBA)

B

Security and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

C

Tariff Advisory Committee (TAC)

D

Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)

E

None of these

Ans.

D

Sol.

Read more here :
­https://www.insuranceinstituteofindia.com/web/guest%20/procedures
(https://www.insuranceinstituteofindia.com/web/guest%20/procedures)

163.

Recently Reserve Bank of India (RBI) cancelled the licence of which bank in hyderabad w.e.f the close of business on 14 July 2014.?
A

Vasavi Co­operative Urban Bank Ltd

B

Agrasen Co­operative Urban Bank Ltd.

C

Agroha Co­operative Urban Bank Ltd.

D

AP Mahesh Co­operative Urban Bank Ltd.

E

None of these

Ans.

A

Sol.

Please see here : https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/BS_PressReleaseDisplay.aspx?prid=31764
(https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/BS_PressReleaseDisplay.aspx?prid=31764) (https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/BS_PressReleaseDisplay.aspx? prid=31764) 164.

Which of the following is/are true about the Indira Awas Yojana of the Govt. of India?
(A) The scheme was the sub­scheme of the Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY).
(B) The scheme was launched to provide housing accommodation to rural people Below Poverty Line (BPL) only.
(C) Under the scheme the allotment of the house is done in the name of the female members of the household in the joint names of the husband and wife. A

Only A

B

Only B

C

Only C

D

All A, B & C

E

None of these

Ans.

D

Sol.

Refer Here (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indira_Awaas_Yojana)

165.

India is the _____ largest exporter of textile in the world.
A

First

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B

Second

C

Third

D

Fifth

E

Fourth

Ans.

B

Sol.

please see here : http://articles.economictimes.indiatimes.com/2014­06­02/news/50272849_1_textiles­exports­india­calender­year
(http://articles.economictimes.indiatimes.com/2014­06­02/news/50272849_1_textiles­exports­india­calender­year)

166.

The two richest Eco­zones of India are­
A

The Himalayas and Vindhyas

B

The Himalayas and Eastern Ghats

C

The Himalayas and Western Ghats

D

The Himalayas and Aravallis

E

None of these

Ans.

C

Sol.

The Himalaya and western Ghats are two richest­eco­zones of India.

167.

Which State produces maximum Soyabean ?
A

Madhya Pradesh

B

Uttar Pradesh

C

Bihar

D

Rajasthan

E

None of these

Ans.

A

Sol.

Link http://www.mapsofindia.com/indiaagriculture/oil­seeds/soyabean­growing­states.html
(http://www.mapsofindia.com/indiaagriculture/oil­seeds/soyabean­growing­states.html)

168.

What is the currency of Egypt?
A

Euro

B

Pound

C

Dollar

D

Dinar

E

None of these

Ans.

B

Sol.

Egyptian Pound

169.

What is the role of the Credit Bureau?
(A) Blacklist borrowers with bad credit record.
(B) Collects credit information of borrowers and supplies the information back to lenders
(C) Gives credit assessment of borrowers
(D) Dictates credit decisions of financial institutions
A

Only A

B

Only B

C

Only C

D

Only D

E

None of these

Ans.

B

Sol.

The Credit Bureau only collects and supplies credit information of borrowers to financial institutions to assist the lenders

170.

What is the currency of Mexico?
A

Lira

B

Peso

C

Mexican Dollars

D

Krones

E

None of these

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Ans.

B

Sol.

The Peso was initially the name of the eight ­real coins issued in Mexico by Spain. The Mexican Peso is now among the 15 most traded currency unit in the world, and is the most traded currency in Latin America.

171.

Who amongst the following has the Centre designated to endorse “I Support Skill India" campaign?
A

Sania Mirza

B

VVS Laxman

C

Sachin Tendulkar

D

Rahul Dravid

E

Martina Hingis

Ans.

C

Sol.

Government has designated Sachin Tendulkar to endorse the 'I Support Skill India' campaign, in an attempt to reach out to the youth and build awareness on the importance of skill development.

172.

Recently ISRO`s ___________, successfully launched IRNSS­1C, the third satellite in the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) from
Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota.
A

PSLV­C23

B

PSLV­C24

C

PSLV­C25

D

PSLV­C26

E

None of these

Ans.

D

Sol.

Recently ISRO`s PSLV­C26 successfully launched IRNSS­1C, the third satellite in the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System
(IRNSS) from Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota.

173.

Javed Akhtar won the Sahitya Akademi Award for which of the following books?
A

Lava

B

Miljul Man

C

Nirvaan

D

Korkai

E

None of these

Ans.

A

Sol.

Refer to the link (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Javed_Akhtar)

174.

28th February is celebrated as __________.
A

World Consumer Day

B

International Woman's Day

C

National Science Day

D

International Customs and Excise Day

E

None of these

Ans.

C

Sol.

Day Date
World Consumer Day 14th March
International Woman's Day 8th March
National Science Day 28th February
International Customs 25th January and Excise Day

175.

Who is known as the "father of the atomic bomb"?
A

Albert Einstein

B

Flower Grath

C

Allen Jones

D

J. Robert Oppenheimer

E

None of these

Ans.

D

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176.

MockBank ­ United India Insurance 2016 Generalist AO Mock Test­ 1
Union Information and Broadcasting (I&B) Ministry has constituted a three­member Committee to see the guidelines set for government advertisements. It will be headed by which of the following?
A

BB Tondon

B

Piyush Pandey

C

Rajat Sharma

D

NR Madhava

E

None of these

Ans.

A

Sol.

Union Information and Broadcasting (I&B) Ministry has constituted a three­member Committee to see that guidelines set for government advertisements by the Supreme Court are followed. It will be headed by Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) B B Tandon.

177.

The Report on Currency and Finance is published by­
A

World Bank

B

Indian Bank Association

C

Bank for International Settlements

D

Reserve Bank of India

E

Ministry of Finance,Government of India

Ans.

D

Sol.

The Report on Currency and Finance is published by Reserve Bank of India.

178.

As we all know, banks in India are required to maintain a portion of their demand and time liabilities with Reserve Bank of India.This portion is called ­
A

Statutory Liquidity Ratio

B

Cash Reserve Ratio

C

Bank Deposit

D

Reverse Repo Rate

E

None of these

Ans.

B

Sol.

Banks in India are required to maintain a portion of their demand and time liabilities with Reserve Bank of India.This portion is called cash
Reserve Ratio.

179.

The Foreign Exchange Reserve of India are kept in the custody of……
A

World Bank

B

International Monetary Fund

C

Prime Minister Rahat Kosh

D

Reserve Bank of India

E

None of these

Ans.

D

Sol.

The Foreign Exchange Reserve of India are kept in the custody of Reserve Bank of India.

180.

An outside panel of experts to screen applications for new bank licences will be headed by?
A

Subba Rao

B

Kelkar

C

Bimal Jalan

D

Rangarajan

E

None

Ans.

C

Sol.

Please see here :http://articles.economictimes.indiatimes.com/2013­09­04/news/41765626_1_rbi­staff­rajan­new­bank­applicants
(http://articles.economictimes.indiatimes.com/2013­09­04/news/41765626_1_rbi­staff­rajan­new­bank­applicants)
(http://articles.economictimes.indiatimes.com/2013­09­04/news/41765626_1_rbi­staff­rajan­new­bank­applicants)

Computer Knowledge 181.

______ is the process of finding errors in software code.
A

Compiling

B

Testing

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C

Running

D

Debugging

E

None of these

Ans.

D

Sol.

Debugging is to identify and remove errors from (computer hardware or software).

182.

Which chips using special external equipment can reprogram ?
A

PROM

B

ROM

C

SAM

D

RAM

E

None of these

Ans.

A

Sol.

Refer to this link:­http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Programmable_read­only_memory (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Programmable_read­ only_memory) (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Programmable_read­only_memory)

183.

Which of the following is a way to access secondary memory?
A

Action method

B

Transfer method

C

Density method

D

None of these

E

Random access memory

Ans.

E

Sol.

Please see here : http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Random­access_memory (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Random­access_memory)

184.

Karnaugh map (K­map) technique provides a systematic method for simplifying___________
A

multiplexers

B

logic gates

C

All of these

D

None of these

E

Boolean expressions

Ans.

E

Sol.

Please see here : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hard_disk_drive_performance_characteristics
(https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hard_disk_drive_performance_characteristics)
(http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/B/Boolean_expression.html)

185.

A KB represents____bytes
A

8

B

1,00,00,00,000

C

10,00,000

D

1,000

E

None of these

Ans.

D

Sol.

Please see here : http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kilobyte (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kilobyte)

186.

What is the most common way to get a virus in your computer's hard disk ?
A

By installing games from their CDROMS

B

By uploading pictures from mobile phones to the computer

C

By sending e­mails

D

By opening e­mails

E

None of these

Ans.

D

Sol.

Opening E­mails from unknown contacts is the most common way to get a virus in your computer

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187.

MockBank ­ United India Insurance 2016 Generalist AO Mock Test­ 1
The process of connecting to the Internet account is
A

SIGN IN

B

LOG OUT

C

LOG IN

D

SIGN OUT

E

None of these

Ans.

C

Sol.

The process of connecting to the Internet account is LOG IN

188.

Which keyboard combination opens a new tab in Internet Explorer?
A

[Ctrl + Tab]

B

[Alt + Tab]

C

[Alt + T]

D

[Ctrl + T]

E

[Shift + T]

Ans.

D

Sol.

[Ctrl + T] keyboard combination opens a new tab in Internet Explorer.

189.

Which of the following is an Internet Service Provider?
A

Google

B

EarthLink

C

Internet Explorer

D

Yahoo

E

None of these

Ans.

B

Sol.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/EarthLink (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/EarthLink)

190.

Which of the following devices have a limitation that we can only store information to it but cannot erase or modify it ?
A

Floppy Disk

B

Hard Disk

C

Tape Drive

D

CD ROM

E

None of these

Ans.

D

Sol.

Please see here : http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/CD­ROM (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/CD­ROM)

191.

Who is known as the father of Computers
A

Henry Dickinsen

B

Charles Babbage

C

Galilio

D

Steve Jobs

E

Chuck Norris

Ans.

B

Sol.

Link ­ https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Charles_babbage (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Charles_babbage)

192.

A competitor to the dominant Lotus 1­2­3 is
A

Microsoft Excel

B

Microsoft Word

C

Microsoft PowerPoint

D

All of these

E

None of these

Ans.

A

Sol.

Link ­ https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lotus_1­2­3 (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lotus_1­2­3)

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193.

When typing in a word field manually, what must you press to insert the code's braces?
A

Ctrl + F6

B

Ctrl + F9

C

Alt + F11

D

Shift+F12

E

None of these

Ans.

B

Sol.

Link ­ http://www.computerhope.com/shortcut.htm (http://www.computerhope.com/shortcut.htm)

194.

What is the default font size of a new Word document based on Normal template?
A

10pt

B

12 pt

C

14 pt

D

All of above

E

None of these

Ans.

B

Sol.

12 pt is the default font size of a new Word document based on Normal template

195.

What is the full form of W3C?
A

World Wide Web Consortium

B

World Wide Web Company

C

World Wide Web Center

D

World Wide Web Command

E

None of these

Ans.

A

Sol.

Please see here : http://www.w3.org/ (http://www.w3.org/)

196.

Which device cannot be shared on network ?
A

Floppy

B

Keyboard

C

Computer

D

Printer

Ans.

B

Sol.

Please see here : http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Computer_keyboard (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Computer_keyboard)

197.

A RAM is the memory that is
A

Permanent

B

Erasable

C

Non erasable

D

None of these

E

All of the above

Ans.

B

Sol.

Random­access memory (RAM ) is a form of computer data storage. A random­access memory device allows data items to be read and written in approximately the same amount of time, regardless of the order in which data items are accessed. In contrast, with other direct­access data storage media such as hard disks, CD­RWs, DVD­RWs and the older drum memory, the time required to read and write data items varies significantly depending on their physical locations on the recording medium, due to mechanical limitations such as media rotation speeds and arm movement delays.

198.

How many keys does the standard Windows US keyboard with number pad have?
A

74

B

84

C

94

D

104

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E

99

Ans.

D

Sol.

The keys found on the number pad the standard Windows US keyboard has 104 keys

199.

In Windows operating system shortcut key Windows Logo+ L
A

Display Windows Help

B

Lock the keyboard

C

Open the Run dialog box

D

Open Utility Manager

E

None of these

Ans.

B

Sol.

Please see here : https://support.microsoft.com/en­us/kb/126449 (https://support.microsoft.com/en­us/kb/126449)

200.

Which of the following is the keyboard shortcut to open "Run" dialog box?
A

Ctrl + M

B

Ctrl + C

C

Start + R

D

Alt + Esc

E

Start + Esc

Ans.

C

Sol.

Start + R is shortcut to open "Run" dialog box.

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