1. Which of the following is not a key part of the communication process?
a. encoding
b. agreeing
c. channel
d. feedback

2. Encoding can be defined as which of the following?
a. anything that blocks, distorts, or changes in any way the message the sender intended to communicate
b. a check on the success of the communication
c. converting a thought, idea, or fact into a message composed of symbols, pictures, or words
d. the encoded information

3. Translating the message back into something that can be understood by the receiver can be defined as which of the following within the communication process?
a. encoding
b. decoding
c. channel
d. feedback

4. If a manager tells an employee to join a telephone conference and the employee says, “I’ll be right there,” this is an example of which type of communication?
a. one-way communication
b. down-stream communication
c. up-stream communication
d. two-way communication

5. If a manager with a finance background sees a problem as finance-based, while a manager with a production background sees it as production-based, what type of communication barrier has occurred?
a. misperception
b. filtering
c. selective perception
d. information overload
6. When a message is not decoded by the receiver in the way the sender intended it, we define this type of communication barrier as __________________.
a. filtering
b. misperception
c. selective perception
d. information overload

7. Interruptions, the sound of engines or machinery, dim computer screens, small font, or a receiver’s headache are examples of which type of communication noise?
a. jargon
b. semantics
c. physical barriers
d. none of these

8. The _______________ medium is the “richest” medium because it has the capacity for immediate feedback, carries multiple cues, and uses natural language.
a. videoconferencing
b. face-to-face
c. telephone
d. e-mail

9.____________ occurs when someone in an organization communicates with others at the same organizational level.
a. Downward communication
b. Upward communication
c. Diagonal communication
d. Horizontal communication

10. ____________ is when the amount of information available exceeds a person’s ability to process it.
a. Misperception
b. Filtering
c. Information overload
d. Selective perception
11. __________ decisions are routine, address specific problems, and result in relatively structured solutions.
a. Programmed
b. Nonprogrammed
c. Strategic
d. Operational

12. ____________ decisions are novel and require creativity.
a. Programmed
b. Nonprogrammed
c. Strategic
d. Operational

13. Which of the following is most likely to be a nonprogrammed decision?
a. how to handle an overtime request
b. how to discipline a subordinate
c. when to introduce a new product
d. none of these

14. __________ decisions address the long-term direction and focus on the organization.
a. Operational
b. Strategic
c. Top-down
d. Decentralized

15. _________ decisions are directive and are made solely by managers who then pass them down to lower-level employees for implementation.
a. Top-down
b. Decentralized
c. Programmed
d. Operational

16. ___________ gives subordinates influence in the decision being made; ___________ gives subordinates the ability and authority to make the decision themselves.
a. Involvement, empowerment
b. Empowerment, involvement
c. Utility, logic
d. Logic, utility

17. The information needed to make a programmed decision is ________ available, and the problem is ___________ structured.
a. readily, highly
b. not readily, not
c. readily, not
d. not readily, highly

18. Nonprogrammed decisions require managers to use ____________ rather than ___________.
a. experience, creativity
b. creativity, experience
c. individuals, groups
d. groups, individuals

19. What is the first step in the rational decision making process?
a. identifying alternatives
b. defining the problem or opportunity
c. setting goals
d. identifying evaluation criteria

20. Satisficing refers to making a _________ rather than _________ decision.
a. rational, intuitive
b. satisfactory, optimal
c. correct, incorrect
d. short-term, long-term

21. What term refers to knowing something instinctively based on expertise and experience solving similar problems?
a. bounded rationality
b. impulsivity
c. intuition
d. catharsis

22. Intuition is most helpful when __________ decisions are needed.
a. fast
b. slow
c. quantitative
d. interpersonal

23. Which leadership style is characterized by centralizing authority, making decisions alone, and expecting followers or subordinates simply to follow instructions?
a. autocratic
b. democratic
c. laissez-faire
d. consultative

24. A leader who shares decision making with others and encourages subordinates to be involved in setting goals is using which style?
a. autocratic
b. democratic
c. laissez-faire
d. impulsive

25. What mode of thinking occurs when people are deeply involved in a cohesive in-group and members’ strivings for unanimity override their motivation to realistically appraise alternative courses of action?
a. group polarization
b. risky shift
c. groupthink
d. brainstorming

26. What type of power is due to the position of authority held?
a. legitimate
b. referent
c. expert
d. informational

27. What type of power is due to control over punishments?
a. persuasive
b. reward
c. coercive
d. legitimate

28. What type of power is due to control because of knowledge, skills, or expertise?
a. informational
b. expert
c. reward
d. persuasive

29. What type of power occurs because subordinates respect, admire, and like the leader?
a. referent
b. legitimate
c. informational
d. expert

30. Which of the following is an intangible reward?
a. praise
b. a pay raise
c. a larger office
d. a certificate

31. Which of the following is a tangible reward?
a. praise
b. respect
c. kindness
d. a pay raise

32. What term refers to sharing power with employees and giving them the authority to make and implement at least some decisions?
a. abuse of power
b. coercion
c. empowerment
d. persuasion
33. The more desirable and important the resources controlled by a group, the greater the group’s _____________.
a. resource power
b. personal power
c. legitimate power
d. abuse of power

34. Which influence tactic involves requesting someone’s advice to solve a problem or mutually setting goals to increase a follower’s commitment to the leader’s decision?
a. consultation
b. personal appeals
c. inspirational appeals
d. legitimating tactics

35. Which influence tactic involves offering to exchange something of value now or in the future for someone’s cooperation?
a. coalition tactics
b. exchange
c. pressure
d. rational persuasion

36. Which influence tactic involves enhancing one’s formal authority to make a certain request by referring to rules, precedents, of official documents?
a. inspirational appeals
b. personal appeals
c. legitimating tactics
d. pressure

37. Which influence tactic uses logic and facts to persuade someone?
a. pressure
b. inspirational tactics
c. rational persuasion
d. coalition tactics

38. What term refers to social influence attempts directed at those who can provide rewards that will help promote or protect the self-interests of the actor?
a. organizational politics
b. abuse of power
c. upward influence
d. pressure

39. What political tactic involves befriending powerful others or starting small subgroups to promote specific aims?
a. building coalitions
b. using outside experts
c. controlling the agenda
d. game playing

40. What term is defined as a disagreement through which two or more parties perceive a threat to their interests, needs, or concerns?
a. conflict
b. dysfunction
c. escalation
d. failure

41. Which cause of conflict involves perceived or actual incompatibilities in beliefs about what is good or bad, right or wrong, or fair or unfair?
a. resource constraints
b. differing process goals
c. poor communication
d. differing values

42. Which cause of conflict involves disagreements over what is to be accomplished?
a. differing task goals
b. differing process goals
c. task interdependence
d. change

43. Effective project teams tend to have _______ levels of process conflict.
a. high but decreasing
b. low but increasing
c. consistently high
d. consistently low

44. What term refers to conflict due to incompatible needs or competition over perceived or actual resource constraints?
a. conflicts of interest
b. process conflict
c. task conflict
d. structural conflict

45. In which stage of conflict escalation does one side get frustrated by debate and take action without consulting the opponent?
a. action over words
b. limited attempts to overthrow
c. hardening
d. images and coalitions

46. What conflict management style reflects a desire to give both parties what they want?
a. collaborating
b. compromising
c. competing
d. avoiding

47. What conflict management style is characterized by each side sacrificing something in order to end the conflict?
a. collaborating
b. compromising
c. competing
d. accommodating

48. Which conflict management style involves pursuing one’s own interest at the expense of the other party?
a. collaborating
b. compromising
c. competing
d. accommodating
49. Which of the following is the cooperative conflict management style characterized by a low concern for one’s own interests?
a. collaborating
b. compromising
c. competing
d. accommodating

50. Which conflict management style involves ignoring the conflict or denying that it exists?
a. compromising
b. competing
c. accomplishing
d. avoiding

51. When trying to resolve conflict, you should focus on _________ rather than ________.
a. interests, positions
b. positions, interests
c. ideas, people
d. people, ideas

52. What emotions are most likely to fuel relationship conflict?
a. sadness and depression
b. anger and frustration
c. excitement and surprise
d. happiness and joy

53. Some employees feel that an organization should be focused on profits while others believe it should focus on doing the maximum good for the maximum number of people. What type of conflict is occurring here?
a. values conflict
b. structural conflict
c. informational conflict
d. personality conflict

54. Often, people are unaware that they are in conflict until they recognize that they are __________ about something.
a. very emotional
b. forgetting
c. excited
d. happy

55. What conflict management style is appropriate to use when the issue is more important to the other party than it is to you?
a. accommodating
b. competing
c. compromising
d. collaborating

56. Saying “I’ll go along with whatever is best for you reflects a/an ________ style.
a. avoiding
b. accommodating
c. compromising
d. competing

57. Which of the following is NOT one of the four key areas of skill development suggested by professionals in conflict resolution training?
a. listening
b. questioning
c. mediating
d. avoiding

58. What term refers to the process in which 2 or more parties make offers, counteroffers, and concessions in order to reach an agreement?
a. negotiation
b. distribution
c. integration
d. aggression

59. Which of the following is NOT one of the four fundamental principles of integrative negotiation?
a. separate the people from the problem
b. focus on positions, not interests
c. invent options for mutual gain
d. insist on objective fairness criteria

60. Which of the following is one of the four fundamental principles for integrative negotiation?
a. focus on positions, not interests
b. invent options for personal gain
c. insist on subjective fairness criteria
d. separate the people from the problem

61. Which of the following should you do while negotiating?
a. constantly make eye contact
b. ignore members of the group
c. use a cold, harsh voice
d. maintain confident posture

62. In ____________, an impartial third party facilitates a discussion using persuasion and logic, suggesting alternatives, and establishing each side’s priorities.
a. conciliation
b. mediation
c. arbitration
d. dictation

63. Which of the following is/are influenced by an organization’s structure?
a. how the organization operates
b. how employees communicate
c. how employees are expected to behave
d. all of these

64. Effective organizational structures do which of the following?
a. improve the working efficiency of the organization
b. motivate employees rather than frustrate them
c. facilitate working relationships among employees
d. all of these

65. What term refers to the process of selecting and managing aspects of organizational structure and culture to enable the organization to achieve its goals?
a. organizational design
b. organizational structure
c. organizational chart
d. division of labor

66. What term refers to the formal system of task, power, and reporting relationships?
a. organizational design
b. organizational structure
c. organizational chart
d. span of control

67. Effective managers use organizational structure to _____________ employees.
a. coordinate
b. control
c. motivate
d. all of these

68. What term refers to the extent to which employees specialize or generalize?
a. division of labor
b. span of control
c. hierarchy
d. centralization

69. What term refers to the number of people reporting directly to an individual?
a. division of labor
b. span of control
c. hierarchy
d. centralization

70. What term refers to the degree to which some employees have formal authority over others?
a. division of labor
b. span of control
c. hierarchy
d. centralization

71. What term refers to the degree to which power and decision making authority are concentrated at higher levels of the organization rather than distributed?
a. division of labor
b. span of control
c. hierarchy
d. centralization

72. ___________ establishes the tallness or flatness of an organizational chart.
a. Division of labor
b. Span of control
c. Hierarchy
d. Centralization

73. By definition, ______________ organizations concentrate power and decision making authority at higher levels of the organization
a. centralized
b. decentralized
c. formalized
d. pressurized

74. In ______________ organizations, the authority for making decisions affecting an organization is distributed.
a. centralized
b. decentralized
c. formalized
d. pressurized

75. Which type of organization is least mechanistic?
a. rigid bureaucracy
b. matrix organization
c. bureaucracy with cross-departmental meetings
d. project- or team-based organization
76. What term refers to structures with formal division of labor, hierarchy, and standardization of work procedures?
a. pre-bureaucratic structures
b. bureaucratic structures
c. functional structures
d. divisional structures

77. For multinational organizations, which structure is most appropriate when local differences are large and the benefits of global integration are small?
a. global product division structure
b. global area division structure
c. global transnational division structure
d. regional headquarters structure

78. What structure creates horizontal or vertical teams that can define part or all of the organization?
a. matrix structure
b. team-based structure
c. lattice structure
d. divisional structure

79. What term refers to a collection of autonomous units or firms that act as a single larger entity, using social mechanisms for coordination and control?
a. network organization
b. virtual organization
c. division
d. work team

80. Organizational structure is to skeleton as organizational culture is to _____________.
a. personality
b. eyes
c. muscles
d. skin

81. What term refers to a system of shared values, norms, and assumptions that guide members’ attitudes and behaviors?
a. organizational change
b. organizational structure
c. organizational culture
d. organizational goals

82. What is the foundation of culture?
a. money
b. trust
c. friendship
d. leadership

83. What term refers to values and norms that employees exhibit based on their observations of what actually goes on in the organization?
a. enacted values and norms
b. assumptions
c. espoused values and norms
d. code of conduct

84. If a business strategy and corporate culture are pulling in two different directions, which will win?
a. the culture
b. the strategy
c. it depends on what the strategy is
d. it depends on what the culture is like

85. Which of the following is NOT true about strong cultures?
a. They clarify appropriate behavior.
b. They are widely shared.
c. They are internally inconsistent.
d. The can enhance organizational performance.

86. A company’s culture should _____________ its business strategy.
a. oppose
b. reinforce
c. not affect
d. undermine

87. Organizations must change in response to which of the following?
a. changing customer preferences
b. changing labor markets
c. changing economic environments
d. all of these

88. What term refers linear, continuous change conducted to fix problems or change procedures?
a. incremental change
b. transformative change
c. regulated change
d. deregulated change

89. What term refers to radical change that tends to be both multidimensional and multilevel, involving discontinuous shifts in thinking or perceiving things?
a. incremental change
b. transformative change
c. regulated change
d. deregulated change

90. Which of the following is an internal driver of change?
a. globalization
b. talent shortages
c. increased competition
d. changes in consumer demands

91. Identify the correct order for Lewin’s phases of the change process.
a. diagnosis, unfreezing, movement, refreezing
b. unfreezing, diagnosis, refreezing, movement
c. unfreezing, refreezing, movement, diagnosis
d. diagnosis, unfreezing, refreezing, movement.

92. ______________ prepares people and organizations for change by creating a disequilibrium between driving and restraining change forces.
a. Diagnosis
b. Unfreezing
c. Movement
d. Refreezing

93. What is the most common order of employee reactions to change?
a. resistance, denial, commitment, exploration
b. denial, resistance, exploration, commitment
c. exploration, resistance, commitment, denial
d. resistance, exploration, denial, commitment.

94. What is occurring when employees attempt to postpone the change implementation by withholding participation and trying to convince decision makers that the proposed change is inappropriate?
a. denial
b. resistance
c. exploration
d. commitment

95. What term refers to regular, stable patterns of events that become routines and take time to change?
a. habits
b. resources
c. rules
d. policies

96. What term refers to any behavior that preserves the status quo in the face of pressure to change?
a. resistance to change
b. fear of the unknown
c. tolerance for ambiguity
d. resistance to structure

97. What term refers to a smaller version of an organizational change intended to test the proposed change and improve it before rolling it out to the entire organization?
a. trial run
b. pilot project
c. organizational experiment
d. organizational study
98. What term refers to an organization that facilitates the learning of all its members and continually transforms itself?
a. a pilot project
b. a learning organization
c. a developmental business
d. a transformative firm

99. What term refers to a planned effort to increase an organization’s long-term effectiveness?
a. organization development
b. organization vision
c. organization learning
d. organization structure

100. Perceptions of the fairness of both change procedures and outcomes are related to more __________ employee reactions to the change.
a. positive
b. negative
c. confused
d. angry