Free Essay

Health

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Submitted By littlemefun
Words 7604
Pages 31
Name: _______________________________________ Date: __________________

1. What does meditation stimulate?

a. pituitary gland
b. parasympathetic
c. sympathetic
d. adrenals

2. Which BEST defines what occurs in the fight or flight response?

a. increase in intestinal movement
b. increase in heart rate and blood pressure
c. decrease in muscle tension
d. decrease in endorphins released

3. Exercise during which the patient does not assist the therapist is called?

a. coordination
b. resistive
c. passive
d. active

4. Migraine and cluster headaches are?

a. tension headaches
b. vascular headaches
c. traumatic
d. psychogenic

5. What do you do if you are working on a client and he/she complains of pain where you are working?

a. say “no pain, no gain”
b. back off and continue communicating to be sure they are comfortable now
c. stop the massage
d. only work areas that don’t cause pain

6. if you are using a technique which requires firm pressure and it’s causing pain, You should?

a. have the client qualify the pain and then modify your pressure
b. explain to the client why pain is necessary
c. continue with the same pressure
d. terminate the session

7. What is the best position for massaging a pregnant woman?

a. prone
b. supine
c. on her side
d. postural drainage position

8. Which BEST describes the location of the Yin channels?

a. anterior
b. posterior
c. proximal
d. distal

9. Where is the center of gravity for a massage/bodywork therapist?

a. knees
b. shoulders
c. pelvis
d. legs

10. Which would you use to increase mobility at a joint?

a. gliding
b. rang of motion
c. percussion
d. friction

11. Which is the best technique for creating heat in tissues?

a. gliding
b. kneading
c. friction
d. tapotement

12. Which is an endangerment site located behind the knee?

a. popliteal artery
b. meadean nerve
c. carotid artery
d. femoral artery

13. Which is an endangerment site located in the anterior elbow?

a. popliteal artery
b. carotid artery
c. jugular vein
d. median cubital vein

14. When you are doing a soothing, relaxion massage, what are you reducing?

a. adrenaline
b. glycogen
c. oxytocin
d. prolactin

15. If you’re standing on your tip toes and have pain in your leg, which muscle is involved?

a. gastrocnemius
b. samitendinosus
c. semimembranosus
d. rhomboids

16. When a client mentions during a session the he/she is considering suicide, the massage/bodywork practiononer should?

a. schedule a treatment for the next day
b. maintain confidentiality
c. refer to a mental healthcare professional
d. counsel the client to not take life so seriously

17. What do you do for conscious adult who eats choking and cannot cough, speak or breath?

a. give two full breaths
b. do a finger sweep
c. give abdominal thrust
d. lower the person to the floor and open the airway

18. Client has upper right thoracic cavity pain?

a. refer to physician
b. massage the relieve pain
c. use heat and exercise right shoulder
d. use very light massage to relieve pain

19. What would be the primary concern when massaging the face?

a. release the TMJ
b. work deep in the temporal area and release the jaw
c. gentle strokes and be careful not to apply pressure over the eyes
d. avoid the axillary artery

20. What is the BEST way for a client with mild, low back pain to bend forward form a standing position to avoid further aggravating the condition?

a. extend the knees while bending and straightening
b. tighten the quadriceps
c. precede the movement with posterior pelvic tilt
d. flex the knees while bending and straightening

21. Which basic technique is used in the Trager Technique?

a. rocking
b. gliding strokes
c. friction
d. percussion

22. Which would be contraindicated when doing range of motion on the lower extremity of a supine client?

a. make sure the hip doesn’t rotate as it flexes
b. make sure the hip does rotate as you flex
c. make sure you don’t hyperextend the knee
d. make sure the hip doesn’t hyperextend

23. If you ask a client to turn his/her head to the side so you can see how much range of motion he/she has, this is considered what type of movement?

a. passive
b. active
c. active resisted
d. asthenic

24. Which muscle would you need to strengthen after a lateral ankle sprain?

a. gastrocnemius
b. soleous
c. popliteus
d. peroneus longus

25. Which type of movement occurs at the radoular joints?

a. abduction
b. gliding
c. rotation
d. adduction

26. Integumentatry system is responsible for?

a. soild waste removal
b. temperature regulation
c. secrets bile
d. circulates oxygen throughout

27. If you have a recent injury that is swollen and hot, how do you classify that?

a. acute
b. subacute
c. chronic
d. b and c

28. Sapasm in which muscle can lead to irritation of the sciatic nerve?

a. piriformis
b. obturator internus
c. gemellus superior
d. gluteus minimus

29. Massaging distal to proximal in the extremities would help decrese edema by affecting fluid movement in?

a. lymphatic vessels
b. venules
c. capillaries
d. arteries

30. Deep massage relieves muscle spasm by?

a. causing hyperdermia and increased local circulation
b. causing increased systemic circulation
c. increasing the nociception
d. both b and c

31. Which massage techniques would stimulate a muscle and cause local vasodilation?

a. gliding and kneading
b. kneading and friction
c. friction and vibration
d. percussion and vibration

32. Which endangerment site would you need to avoid when compressing the sternum?

a. articular facets of the ribs
b. xiphoid process
c. sternal body
d. carotid artery

33. How do you know when the client relaxes?

a. closed eyes
b. sleeping
c. deep rhythmic breathing
d. snoring

34. While giving a massage, how do you know if your pressure is causing discomfort?

a. he/she is holding his/her breath
b. slow breathing
c. redness of skin
d. increase in skin temperature

35. Universal sign for choking?

a. “I’m choking”
b. coughing
c. waving arms overhead
d. grasping the throat

36. If a client over the age of 40 has abdominal pain and fever during a session, the massage/bodywork practitioner should?

a. refer the client to a physician and proceed with the massage
b. refer the client to a physician and not proceed with the massage
c. recommend antacid and proceed with the massage
d. recommend antacid and not proceed with the massage

37. Palpation of which body landmark helps to locate a common endangerment site?

e. patella
f. tibial tuberosity
g. supraspinous process
h. medial epicondyle of the humerus

38. Spasmodic torticollis involves which of the following muscles?

a. subclavius
b. sternocaeidomastoid
c. splenius capitis
d. rotators brevis

39. What is the effect of a reflex initiated by a Golgi tendon organ?

a. muscle contraction
b. muscle lengthening
c. antagonist contraction
d. b and c

40. A client has trouble flexing his/her forearm and abducting the arm. Which muscles are involved in this restriction?

a. biceps brachii and deltoid
b. supraspinatus and deltoid
c. pectoralis major and deltoid
d. Coracobrachialis and latissimus dorsi

41. If a client has an emotional release on the table and starts crying, what should you do?

a. be supportive and ask if its okay to continue working
b. ask the client to leave and come back when he/she is emotionally stable
c. refer him/her to a psychologist
d. ignore it

42. Massage below the navel is contraindicated in what condition?

a. unethical
b. bladder irritation
c. uncomfortable
d. constipation

43. During abdominal massage?

a. the knees should be flexed
b. tapotement should be used
c. the legs should be flat on the table
d. a rolled towel should be used under the ankles

44. Which term would best describe the art of feeling muscles for tension and changes?

a. gliding
b. palpation
c. rang of motion
d. friction

45. To a massage/bodywork practitioner, abnormal body tempature, acute infectious disease, inflammation, osteoporosis, and varicose veins are examples of massage?

a. treatments
b. indication
c. result
d. contraindications

46. The carpomentacarpal joint of the thumb is which type of joint?

a. ball and socket
b. ellipsoidal
c. saddle
d. syndesmosis

47. degenerative joint cartilage is found in?

a. rheumatoid arthritis
b. osteoarthritis
c. gouty arthritis
d. bursitis

48. Which best represents a medial rotation?

a. turning the head
b. humerus turning in
c. leg turning out
d. ankle turning out

49. Which term is defined as specific resistance to disease?

a. immunity
b. susceptibility
c. antigen-antibody complexes
d. anamnestic response

50. To increase venous return, the therapist should elevate the limb?

a. during the massage of the limb
b. after the massage
c. before the massage
d. not at all

51. How can a bladder infection go into the kidneys?

a. through the ureters
b. through the urethera
c. through the glomerulus
d. through the nephron

52. Tapotement should never be used?

a. over the heart
b. on the legs
c. over the kidneys
d. prior to effleurage

53. Which massage/bodywork systems focus on releasing energy blocks by contacting specific points on the body?

a. polarity therapy and Shiatsu
b. craniosacral therapy and Myofascial release
c. neuromuscular therapy and Cyriax transverse friction
d. joint mobilization and Alexander technique

54. Movement occurs with which type of contraction?

a. isotonic
b. tonic
c. isometric
d. titanic

55. Which is the correct order of the layers of the skin, from deep to superficial?

a. epidermis, dermis, superficial fascia
b. dermis, superficial fascia, epidermis
c. superficial fascia, dermis, epidermis
d. superficial fascia, epidermis, dermis

56. What is the term used for increased blood flow in tissue?

a. hyperemia
b. hypothermia
c. hyperthermia
d. hyperthyrea

57. Which technique would be the best for creating a local hyperemia?

e. gliding
f. kneading
g. friction
h. vibration

58. Which hydrotherapeutic technique would cause immediate vasodilation, hyperemia and redness in the skin?

a. ice
b. cold immersion
c. heat
d. prolonged cold

59. Alternate contraction and dilation of blood vessels is an effect of?

a. cold compress
b. contrast bath
c. percussion douche
d. salt glow

60. Chemical packs are indicated for?

a. pain relief, relax muscle spasm, increase blood flow
b. old sprains, hypertension in musculature
c. treating diseases using temperatures above 105 degrees
d. acute trauma

61. Local applications of moist heat to the body surface are called?

a. fomentations
b. poultices
c. inflammation reducers
d. thermal packs

62. Analgesia is MOST quickly produced with the application of?

a. an ice pack
b. ice massage
c. a cold wrap
d. moist heat

63. Which of the following is an inflammatory joint condition caused by deposits of uric acid crystals?

a. rheumatoid arthritis
b. bursitis
c. tendosynovitis
d. gout

64. Which physiological change occurs during the first stage to the tissue repair process?

a. histamine release
b. collagen remodeling
c. increased fibrin production
d. decreased leukocyte migration

65. Blood going to the lungs from the heart would pass through?

a. the aorta
b. the left ventricle
c. the pulmonary artery
d. the left atrium

66. During massage, the area of the body bordered by the clavicle, sternum, and pectoralis can be considered and endangerment site because it contains the?

a. subclavian vein
b. carotid artery
c. lymph nodes
d. epidermal tissue

67. In Shiatsu, where is the hara located?

a. abdomen
b. chest
c. heart
d. head

68. Which organ does the sternum and vertebral column protect?

a. heart
b. thyroid
c. spleen
d. stomach

69. Which is the master gland?

a. pituitary
b. adrenal
c. pancreas
d. thyroid

70. In what abdominopelvic quadrant is the gall bladder located?

a. upper left
b. lower left
c. upper right
d. lower right

71. Nerve cells consist of all the following except?

a. body/soma
b. sarcolemma
c. axon
d. dendrite

72. Deep massage techniques for the sartorius must be applied with caution to avoid endangerment of the?

a. common peroneal nerve
b. popliteal lymph nodes
c. greater saphenous vein
d. lesser saphenous vein

73. Concentric contraction of the triceps brachii results in?

a. elbow flexion
b. elbow extension
c. shoulder flexion
d. shoulder abduction

74. Which muscle must be strengthened when there is a lateral ankle sprain?

a. soleus
b. gastrocnemius
c. tibialis anterior
d. peroneus longus

75. Which muscle would primarily be affected by TMJ dysfunction?

a. sternocleidomastoid
b. trapezius
c. masseter
d. scalenes

76. Which muscles are MOST important to massage in assisting respiratory function?

a. intercostals
b. latissimus dorsi
c. external oblique
d. sternocleidomastoid

77. Muscle of relaxed inspiration?

a. diaphragm
b. intercostals
c. anterior scalenes
d. serratus anterior

78. In what area do you avoid deep pressure massage?

a. anterior arm
b. posterior arm
c. forearm
d. posterior thigh

79. What are two primary actions of the biceps femoris?

a. flexing the knee and extending the hip
b. flexing the hip and extending the knee
c. flexing the elbow and supinating the hand
d. extending the elbow and pronation the hand

80. Client comes in complaining of wrist pain from a fall on the way to your office, what would you do?

a. range of motion to inhibit inflammation
b. deep pressure
c. refer to a physician
d. a and b

81. Sciatic nerve goes between which two landmarks?

a. greater trochanter and ischial tuberosity
b. rotator cuff muscles
c. SITS
d. Greater trochanter and iliac crest

82. Why is the sternocleidomastoid generally massaged towards the heart with the neck rotated?

a. thyroid
b. pharynx
c. pectoralis minor
d. jugular veins

83. Where will you find a serous membrane?

a. lining the mouth
b. covering the lungs
c. covering the body
d. lining the large intestine

84. Which muscle is involved in a rotator cuff jury?

a. pectoralis
b. supraspinatus
c. teres major
d. levator scapula

85. Eighty-five percent of the lymphatic fluid from the breast tissue drains into which lymph duct?

a. axillary
b. one in the jaw area
c. inguinal
d. popliteal

86. What blood vessels are located immediately above and below the clavicle and can be occluded?

e. axillary
f. brachial
g. subclavian
h. brachiocephalic

87. In which endangerment site is the carotid sinus located?

e. femoral triangle
f. posterior region of the neck
g. anterior triangle region of the neck
h. deltopectoral triangle

88. Which exercise directly increases flexibility in dorsiflexion of the ankle?

a. toe raises
b. heel raises
c. plantar flexion
d. Achilles tendon stretch

89. A massage/bodywork practitioner palpates the insertion of the levator scapula at the?

a. coracoid process
b. acromion process
c. vertebral border of the scapula
d. superior angle of the scapula

90. Intercostal muscles are associated with the?

a. ribs
b. lower extremities
c. jaw
d. spine

91. A fluid filled structure that cushions structures around joints is a?

a. bursa
b. synovia
c. aponeurosis
d. intracapsular ligament

92. Origin of what abductor of the shoulder is superior to the glenohumeral joint?

a. deltoid
b. infrasupraspinatus
c. subscapularis
d. teres minor

93. Client presents with difficulty in flexing the forearm and abducting the shoulder, which muscles are involved in the restriction?

a. biceps brachii and deltoid
b. triceps and pectoralis major
c. anconeus and teres major
d. b and c

94. Over eighty five percent of the lymph from breast enters the lymph nodes of which area?

a. lumbosacral
b. submaxillary
c. popliteal
d. axillary

95. Which of the following is a function of the lymphatic system?

a. produces blood cells and clotting factors
b. drains fluid from tissue spaces back into the blood
c. filters the blood and removes digested nutrients
d. detoxifies protein, drugs and chemicals in the blood

96. The term pes anserinus refers to?

a. a type of seizure
b. a type of chronic muscle spasm
c. the dorsal surface of the foot
d. the common insertion of three

97. What type of movement occurs between the carpal bones?

a. gliding
b. flexion
c. circumduction
d. rotation

98. Intercarpal articulations are capable of which motion?

a. rotation
b. gliding
c. flexion
d. abduction

99. What bony landmark is near an endangerment site?

a. medial epicondyle because of ulnar nerve
b. patella
c. tibial tuberosity
d. C7 supraspinous process

100. Where is the bony landmark for tennis elbow?

a. lateral humeral epicondyle
b. medial humeral epicondyle
c. ulnar coracoid process
d. olecranon process

101. What is the origin of the short head of the biceps brachii?

a. coracoid process
b. olecranon process
c. radial tuberosity
d. lateral epicondyle

102. In the Western anatomical position, which bone lies superior to the ulna?

a. femur
b. radius
c. tibia
d. clavicle

103. What is the term for a muscle that is MOST responsible for causing a specified joint action?

a. antagonist
b. stabilizer
c. prime mover
d. assistant mover

104. Which method of improving rang of motion is within the scope of practice of the massage/bodywork practitioner?

a. tense-relax muscle stretching
b. reduction of vertebral subluxation
c. administration of corticosteroids
d. tissue manipulation under hypnosis

105. Pressure on or near the insertion of the biceps femoris may endanger the?

a. sciatic nerve
b. common peroneal nerve
c. saphenous vein
d. posterior tibial artery

106. What are the medial muscles of the femoral region?

a. gluteus medius
b. gluteus minimus
c. gluteus maximus
d. adductors

107. Were will you find the deltoid tuberosity?

a. radius
b. scapula
c. ulna
d. humerus

108. What is a contraindication for joint mobilization?

a. inflammation
b. painful joints
c. spasm
d. reversible hypomobility

109. The bony prominence on the lateral side of the ankle (malleolus) is part of what bone?

a. tibia
b. fibula
c. femur
d. humerus

110. Which muscle would MOST likely be the source of pain and limited ROM in frozen shoulder?

a. trapezius
b. rhomboids
c. subscapularis
d. pectoralis major

111. Which of the following is an example of an ellipsoidal joint?

a. hip
b. elbow
c. knee
d. wrist

112. What does massage do for the muscles?

a. tones and increases circulation
b. reduces venous and lymphatic flow
c. stimulates and reduces circulation
d. increases myotonic contraction

113. When the client is in the prone position, the soleus muscle is underneath the?

a. peroneus brevis
b. flexor hallucis longus
c. flexor digitorum longus
d. gastrocnemius

114. When the client is in the prone position, the semitendinosus is immediately superficial to which muscles?

a. sartorius
b. adductor brevis
c. semimembranosus
d. vastus medialis

115. According to first aid protocol, what is the correct order in treatment of a srain?

a. ice, compression, rest, elevation
b. ice, compression, elevation, rest
c. rest, ice, compression, elevation
d. rest, compression, elevation, ice

116. Massage to large varicosities in the legs is contraindicated because?

a. an artery can vasodilate
b. the vein can vasoconstrict
c. the legs can develop arthritis
d. A clot can dislodge

117. In which muscles can a contraction be palpated when the humerus is abducted to 90°?

a. deltoid
b. biceps femoris
c. pectoralis major
d. extensor carpi radialis

118. Which group of muscles is responsible for flexion of the humerus?

a. teres major, teres minor, subscapularis
b. levator scapula, sternocleidomastoid, scalenes
c. coracobrachialis, pectoralis major, anterior deltoid
d. trapezius, biceps brachii, latissimus dorsi

119. Which muscle flexes the knee and attaches to the fibula?

a. peroneus longus
b. biceps femoris
c. semitendinosus
d. rectus femoris

120. Where is the olecranon process found?

a. proximal tibia
b. proximal radius
c. proximal fibula
d. proximal ulna

121. What muscles can be found in the posterior femoral group?

a. hamstrings
b. quadriceps
c. gastrocnemius
d. soleus

122. What is the purpose of a ligament?

a. joint stabilization
b. muscle stabilization
c. reinforce the attachment of muscle to bone
d. increase flexibility to the joint

123. All the following muscles evert the foot except?

a. peroneus longus
b. peroneus brevis
c. peroneus tertius
d. tibialis posterior

124. An endangerment site that must be avoided when working gracilis is the?

a. cubital vein
b. jugular vein
c. femoral nerve
d. xiphoid process

125. What two types of joints would be found in the spine?

a. ellipsoid/suture
b. hinge/syndesmosis
c. gliding/symphysis
d. saddles/synchondrosis

126. What endangerment site must you be aware of when massaging the origins of the scalenes?

a. subclavian vein
b. jugular vein
c. maxillary lymph nodes
d. submental lymph nodes

127. Which muscle might be a source of sciatic pain by entrapping the sciatic nerve?

a. piriformis
b. gluteus maximus
c. abductor longus
d. tensor fascia latae

128. Which physiological effect does Swedish-style massage/bodywork have?

a. it assists lymphatic and venous flow back toward the heart
b. it delays loss of strength following nerve injuries
c. it increases venostasis
d. it reduces cellulite in weight-conscious individuals

129. What is the MOST common cause of tendonitis?

a. aging
b. trauma
c. overuse
d. bacterial infection

130. Caution must be used when working on the axillary region due to the location of which structure?

a. vagus nerve
b. brachial artery
c. pectoralis major
d. coracobrachialis

131. Which of the following is a progressive degeneration of articular cartilage?

a. gout
b. bursitis
c. osteoarthritis
d. rheumatoid arthritis

132. As the triceps shortens during elbow extension, what muscle lengthens?

a. anconeus
b. biceps femoris
c. biceps brachii
d. latissimus dorsi

133. All of the following are functions of the skin except?

a. stabilize body temperature
b. remove solid wastes
c. protection
d. vitamin D synthesis

134. Which type of blood pressure is measured when the left ventricle is contracting?

a. systolic
b. diastolic
c. hyperbolic
d. osmotic

135. Which muscles do not elevate the ribs during inspiration?

a. scalenes and sternocleidomastoid
b. levatores constarum
c. external intercostals
d. abdominals

136. Which posterior thigh muscle is the most superficial?

a. semimembranosus
b. abductor magnus
c. rectus femoris
d. semitendinosus

137. Which of the following is located deep to the left lower rib cage?

a. spleen
b. liver
c. cecum
d. bladder

138. What are two major functional characteristics of nervous tissue?

a. irritability and conductivity
b. activity and contraction
c. flexion and extension
d. thermoregulatory and chemical production

139. The functional unit of the kidney is the?

a. nephron
b. alveolus
c. hepatocytes
d. melanocytes

140. Fluid found in all diarthrotic joints is?

a. serous fluid
b. plasma
c. synovial
d. CSF

141. During what type of contraction does a muscle contract without creating any movement of a joint?

a. isometric
b. isotonic
c. concentric
d. eccentric

142. What part of the brain controls hunger and thirst?

a. thalamus
b. hypothalamus
c. cerebellum
d. cerebrum

143. Illeocecal valve is located between which two organs?

a. small intestine and large intestine
b. pancreas and small intestine
c. esophagus and stomach
d. coracobrachialis and jejunum

144. Characteristics of rheumatoid arthritis?

a. bilateral joint involvement
b. chronic systemic disease
c. elevated white blood cells
d. joint specific inflammation

145. In working axillary area, what can be entrapped?

a. brachial artery
b. vagus nerve
c. pectoralis major
d. coracobrachialis

146. In what abdominopelvic quadrant is the sigmoid flexure of the colon located?

a. lower right
b. upper right
c. lower left
d. upper left

147. Palpation of which bony landmark helps located the ulnar nerve?

a. calcaneus
b. spine of scapula
c. anterior margin of tibia
d. medial epicondyle of the humerus

148. What term describes relaxation of the ventricles?

a. diastolic
b. systolic
c. hyperbaric
d. hypertonic

149. Contraction of the triceps brachii muscle concentrically would cause?

a. elbow flexion
b. elbow extension
c. knee flexion
d. knee extension

150. The treatment goal of pleasurable, soothing bodywork is to?

a. reset the stretch reflex
b. stimulate the withdrawal reflex
c. engage the sympathetic nervous system
d. stimulate the parasympathetic nervous system

151. Concentric contraction of the triceps causes what action?

a. extension
b. supination
c. pronation
d. flexion

152. What muscle initiates walking?

a. iliopsoas
b. gastrocnemius
c. soleus
d. gluteus maximus

153. Skeletal muscle contraction, which is re-stimulated before the relaxation phase is completed, is known as?

a. twitch
b. tetany
c. treppe
d. fibrillation

154. Hepatic portal circulation describes venous drainage from the abdomen to the?

a. liver
b. heart
c. lungs
d. superior vena cava

155. What gland secretes aldosterone?

a. thymus
b. thyroid
c. pituitary
d. adrenal (cortex)

156. Which tissue covers all exposed surfaces of the body?

a. muscle tissue
b. nervous tissue
c. connective tissue
d. epithelial tissue

157. Building reactions that occur in the body are collectively known as?

a. anabolism
b. catabolism
c. metabolism
d. cannibalism

158. What would aggravate popliteal tendonitis?

a. serving in tennis
b. running down hill
c. swimming
d. reclining

159. Which efferent division of the nervous system is involved with energy conserving, restorative functions?

a. sympathetic
b. parasympathetic
c. medulla oblongata
d. spinal thalamic tract

160. Massage for pleasure or relaxation affects primarily the?

a. sympathetic division
b. parasympathetic division
c. autonomic division
d. central division

161. In treating chronic constipation, where do you work first?

a. stomach
b. large intestine
c. small intestine
d. sigmoid colon

162. Raising the foot/toes up towards the head is?

a. eversion
b. inversion
c. dorsiflexion
d. plantarflexion

163. Muscle contraction when the muscle doesn’t move?

a. isometric
b. isotonic
c. isokinetic
d. kinetic

164. Which muscle crosses two joints?

a. gastrocnemius
b. soleus
c. peroneus longus
d. vastus lateralis

165. Which of these does not attach to the coracoid process?

a. pectoralis minor
b. biceps
c. SCM
d. Coracobrachialis

166. Which of the following stores bile and ejects concentrated bile into the duodenum during digestion?

a. spleen
b. kidneys
c. thymus
d. gall bladder

167. What organ functions in carbohydrate, protein and lipid metabolism?

a. the spleen
b. the pancreas
c. the gall bladder
d. the liver

168. When a cell surrounds solid particles with a portion of the cell membrane?

a. pinocytosis
b. phagocytosis
c. exocytosis
d. mitosis

169. Which of the following structures inhibits muscle contraction?

a. Ruffini’s corpuscle
b. Meissner receptor
c. Pacianian corpuscle
d. Golgi tendon apparatus

170. Lymph modes are found in which region?

a. cranial
b. axillary
c. popliteal
d. interphalangeal

171. Which of the following conditions is most apt to result from stress, poor diet and lack of exercise?

a. neuritis
b. tendonitis
c. constipation
d. double vision

172. How is sebum secreted?

a. via ducts
b. via sebaceous glands
c. onto the skin/hair
d. all of the above

173. Which is an inorganic biomolecule that is central to living systems?

a. Ca+
b. Zn+
c. K+
d. H20

174. Primary function of the lymph nodes is to?

a. make white blood cells
b. make red blood cells
c. filter red blood cells
d. regulate intercellular fluid, filter and neutralize bacteria

175. Improper diet and dehydration can lead to the formation of abnormal deposits in the urinary tract called?

a. casts
b. kidney stones
c. fibromas
d. ketone bodies

176. Mass peristalsis takes place in the?

a. liver
b. pancreas
c. colon
d. stomach

177. Haustral churning occurs in the?

a. small intestines
b. large intestines
c. stomach
d. kidneys

178. What physiological effect does meditation produce?

a. a hypometabolic state
b. increased oxygen consumption
c. decreased electrical resistance of the skin
d. increased lactic acid in the blood

179. Sigmoid flexure is in what quadrant of the abdomen?

a. lower left
b. upper left
c. lower right
d. upper right

180. What produces the first heart sound (lub-dub)?

a. contraction/systole of the heart
b. snapping shut of the AV valves
c. relaxation/diastole of the heart
d. snapping shut of the tricuspid valves

181. What organ can you palpate under the ribs on the right side?

a. liver
b. spleen
c. stomach
d. gall bladder

182. Which is a type of connective tissue?

a. blood
b. lymph
c. glandular tissue
d. smooth muscle

183. The dense connective tissue covering of a single muscle fiber is the?

a. perimysium
b. endomysium
c. epimysium
d. peineurium

184. What is the waterproofing (water repelling) substance in the skin?

a. blood
b. melanin
c. keratin
d. elastin

185. Client presents at a triathlon with a high fever, nausea, dry skin, and a red face, these are signs of?

a. heat exhaustion
b. heat stroke
c. shock
d. heat prostration

186. What is the function of the ureters?

a. activate micturition
b. absorb waste products from the urethra
c. transport urine from the kidneys to the bladder
d. facilitate blood flow to the kidneys

187. Which are receptors for vibration and touch?

a. proprioceptors
b. nociceptors
c. mechanoreceptors
d. noreceptors

188. Which type of stretching can result in increased muscle tension?

a. static
b. ballistic
c. contract-relax
d. reciprocal inhibition

189. Bending the elbow to 90°, from the anatomical position, describes?

a. flexion
b. extension
c. abduction
d. adduction

190. An abrasion which is red and hot, indicates what?

a. acute inflammation
b. chronic inflammation
c. subacute inflammation
d. a and b

191. What is a contraindication for heat?

a. inflammation
b. torticollis
c. muscle spasm
d. all of the above

192. What is the approximate life span of erythrocytes?

a. six days
b. 90 days
c. 120 days
d. three years

193. Which stretching technique reduces muscle spasm in a strained hamstring?

a. precede the stretch with anterior pelvic tilt
b. precede the stretch with quadriceps contraction
c. contract the abductors while in a full stretch
d. add a rhythmic bounce to the stretch

194. Sugars and starches belong to which class of organic compounds?

a. proteins
b. carbohydrates
c. lipids
d. vitamins

195. What is the correct order of the divisions of the colon from cecum to anus?

a. ascending, transverse, descending, sigmoid
b. descending, transverse, sigmoid, ascending
c. sigmoid, ascending, transverse, descending
d. transverse, ascending, sigmoid, descending

196. The medulla and pons are part of the?

a. diencephalons
b. cerebellum
c. brainstem
d. spinal cord

197. How much of the blood is plasma?

a. 35%
b. 55%
c. 70%
d. 30%

198. The purpose of the pleural fluid in the lungs and chest cavity is to?

a. supply antibodies
b. control bacteria
c. lubricate the alveoli
d. lubricate the opposed membranes

199. Which of the following is an example of medial rotation?

a. turning the head to one side
b. turning the hip joint outward
c. turning the anterior humerus towards the chest
d. turning the palm upward

200. Which is the site where the lymphatic system returns fluid to the cardiovascular system?

a. The subclavian/jugular venous junction
b. The carotid artery
c. The brachiocephalic artery
d. The subclavian/carotid artery junction

201. Meditation affects the?

a. sympathetic nervous system
b. parasympathetic nervous system
c. autonomic nervous system
d. peripheral vascular system

202. What is the site of exchange of nutrients between the blood and the tissue?

a. arteries
b. veins
c. capillaries
d. lymphatics

203. Which of the following is a function of the kidneys?

a. depresses organic metabolism
b. controls the composition and volume of blood
c. protects against blood loss through the clotting mechanism
d. transports fats from the gastrointestinal tract to the blood

204. The ileocecal valve is located between which two structures?

a. esophagus and stomach
b. stomach and small intestine
c. pancreas and small intestine
d. small and large intestines

205. Which hormone produces effects similar to those produced by the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system?

a. insulin
b. adrenaline
c. calcitonin
d. parathyroid

206. What is the appropriate sequence for client evaluation?

a. history and interview, observation and palpation, range-of-motion tests, strength tests
b. observation and palpation, range-of-motion tests, history and interview, strength tests
c. range-of-motion tests, history and interview, strength tests, observation and palpation
d. strength tests, range-of-motion tests, observation and palpation

207. Receptors for pain are?

a. proprioceptors
b. nociceptors
c. mechanoreceptors
d. norioceptors

208. Which type of inflammation is unique in that it involves the autoimmune system and is therefore a contraindication for massage?

a. osteoarthritis
b. rheumatoid arthritis
c. tendonitis
d. gout

209. What degenerative joint disease is an inflammation of the synovial membrane?

a. gout
b. lumbago
c. osteoarthritis
d. rheumatoid arthritis

210. What id the best way to assess crepitus?

a. sight
b. feel
c. smell
d. sound

211. What part of the body is affected by torticollis?

a. hip
b. knee
c. neck
d. elbow

212. What is an exaggerated, forward-bending, C-curve in the thoracic spin viewed laterally?

a. scoliosis
b. lordosis
c. kyphosis
d. endocytosis

213. If sever curvature of the spine is noted in a new client?

a. refer the client to a physician
b. study before treating the individual again
c. use deep massage
d. charge for more treatments

214. First stages of healing results in?

a. increase fibrin production
b. increase leukocyte migration
c. decrease leukocyte migration
d. collagen remodeling

215. What is one of the first physiological responses to stress?

a. increase heart rate
b. increase digestion
c. redness of skin
d. increase skin temperature

216. Pain experienced in one part if the body although it is being stimulated in another part of the body is called?

a. phantom
b. referred
c. chronic
d. acute

217. Which skin condition is contagious?

a. eczema
b. psoriasis
c. impetigo
d. vitiligo

218. A skin condition that is red, scaly and flakes off is called?

a. eczema
b. psoriasis
c. vitiligo
d. impetigo

219. Patients with high blood pressure should be?

a. referred to a physician
b. scheduled for series of massages
c. taught strenuous sauna exercise
d. given oral medication to lower pressure

220. A sphygmomanometer is used to measure?

a. muscle stress
b. temperature
c. cardiovascular rate
d. blood pressure

221. What is the method of measuring heart rate, blood pressure, and tension through the body with special devices?

a. creative visualization
b. biofeedback
c. kinetic
d. kinesiology

222. For which of the following conditions is biofeedback training MOST commonly used?

a. asthma
b. osteoarthritis
c. tennis elbow
d. Addison’s disease

223. Scoliosis is a condition which involves?

a. an imbalance of muscle tone
b. rocking of the muscles
c. rolling of the muscles
d. moving of the muscles

224. Two important effects of massage therapy are physical and?

a. psychological
b. pathological
c. chemical
d. relational

225. With regard to massage, post-fracture care, torticollis, and amputation stumps are?
a. indicated
b. contraindicated
c. by physician’s prescription only
d. none of the above

226. The use of water as a solid, liquid, or a vapor, internally or externally, in the treatment of disease or trauma is?

a. contraindicated
b. hydrotherapy
c. only as prescription
d. heliotherapy

227. The local application of cold produces a condition known as?

a. hypo-contraction
b. auto-reflex
c. vaso-constriction
d. hyper-contraction

228. What will immediately bring more circulation (blood) to the surface?

a. ice
b. cold water immersion
c. moist heat
d. room temperature water

229. A whirlpool bath is indicated for?

a. post-operative orthopedic conditions
b. low blood pressure
c. stiff, sore muscles
d. all of the above

230. A chemical pack of silica gel is called a?

a. atomizer
b. hydrocollator
c. lesion reducer
d. thermal poultice

231. Massage effects include?

a. decrease heart rate and skin temperature, increase respiratory rate
b. decrease heart rate and respiratory rate, increase skin temperature
c. decrease respiratory rate and skin temperature, increase heart rate
d. decrease respiratory rate and skin temperature, decrease heart rate

232. One of the most potent procedures in hydrotherapy is?

a. the contrast bath
b. salt glow
c. paraffin bath
d. Russian bath

233. Prolonged exposure to _________ depresses physiological functions.

a. ultraviolet therapy
b. heat
c. cold
d. moist heat

234. Why should prolonged immersion of a part in cold water be avoided?

a. depresses body functions
b. over contracted muscles
c. cutaneous sensations is depressed
d. all of the above

235. A very brief application of cold to the face, hands, and head causes and increase in mental alertness and activity?

a. true
b. false
c. in some individuals
d. no effect

236. If a decrease in blood flow is an initial effect of ice, a secondary effect will be?

a. increase in blood flow
b. decrease in blood flow
c. no change
d. Stimulates release of endorphins

237. The application of cold temporarily relieves pain by?

a. creating vasoconstriction
b. creating vasodilation
c. increasing corticosteroid production
d. decreasing sensory input

238. Which of the following is BEST utilized if the sprain has notable discoloration

a. ice
b. hot compresses
c. cold compresses
d. warm whirlpool

239. What hydrotherapy modality is used to decrease pain and cellular metabolism?

a. ice pack
b. hot compresses
c. warm sitz bath
d. contrast bath

240. Which is the best treatment for acute bursitis?

a. heat
b. ice
c. friction
d. ultraviolet therapy

241. In early treatment of sprains, contusions, and soft tissue injuries, the normal treatment is?

a. cold compresses
b. hot packs
c. whirlpool in excess of 103 degrees
d. infrared treatment

242. During the acute stage of healing a sprain/strain, a treatment goal of massage is to?

a. stimulate vasodilation
b. decrease circulation
c. stimulate swelling
d. decrease secondary muscle spasm

243. Cloths wrung from cold or ice water and applied to the body surface are called?

a. stimulators
b. cold compresses
c. depressors
d. chemical pack

244. Effects of a whirlpool are to?

a. stimulate circulation
b. slow circulation
c. decrease blood flow
d. decrease lymph production

245. Enclosing the head in medicated steam may help relieve?

a. sinusitis
b. arthritis
c. acne
d. phlebitis

246. In hydrotherapy, the most important effect of warm water is?

a. thermal
b. sedative
c. stimulative
d. analgesic

247. A client can exercise in the water during which treatment?

a. a paraffin bath
b. sitz bath
c. Hubbard tank
d. Whirlpool

248. What is applied to a recent first degree burn?

a. warm water
b. cold water
c. ointment
d. dry bandage

249. Moist heat pack is contraindicated if there is?

a. edema
b. osteoarthritis
c. ankylosing spondylitis
d. chronic muscle spasm

250. The use of heat is contraindicated if there is?

a. muscle spasm
b. chronic mild pain
c. neurologic impairment
d. a painless, stiff joint

251. Deep effleurage _______________.

a. extends the muscle
b. reduces venous and lymphatic flow
c. should not be done on elderly clients
d. promotes venous and lymphatic flow

252. A mechanical effect of massage is to?

a. stretch superficial muscles
b. stimulate the sensory reflex affect in the skin
c. reduce adipose tissue
d. remove deep scarring in connective tissue

253. A medicated pack used externally is called?

a. a salt glow
b. a fiber pack
c. a poultice
d. hydrocollator

254. What is the term for pain that is felt in one area but originates in another area?

a. referred
b. reflected
c. transmitted
d. transferred

255. Which type of assessment specifies which muscle is weak?

a. measurement of the circumference of a muscle
b. passive
c. assistive
d. resistive

256. Massage is contraindicated when a headache is accompanied by?

a. nausea and drowsiness
b. shoulder muscles in spasm
c. dislike of bright light
d. pain when head is bent forward

257. A common indication for abdominal massage is?

a. diverticulitis
b. hiatal hernia
c. constipation
d. all of the above

258. Responses triggered by the heat-promoting center are?

a. vasoconstriction, shivering
b. vasodilation, perforation
c. radiation, evaporation
d. inspiration, perspiration

259. Which of the following is a contraindication for massage?

a. poor circulation
b. sore muscles
c. fatigue
d. hypertension

260. Which massage technique is used to begin and end a treatment?

a. friction
b. effleurage
c. petrissage
d. vibration

261. Which of these three techniques would you use on someone with chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder?

a. percussion
b. deep massage of the intercostals
c. vibration
d. all of the above

262. What movement should not be performed on the chest?

a. heavy tapotement
b. friction
c. effleurage
d. petrissage

263. Which of the following arteries cause the posterior of the knee joint to be an endangerment site?

a. iliac
b. popliteal
c. femoral
d. posterior tibial

264. In applying vibration, the therapist?

a. keeps wrist and finger joints stiff
b. should use heavy pressure
c. flutters the tips of the fingers
d. is trying to stimulate the client

265. Tapotement is done on ________________________ muscles?

a. striated
b. non-striated
c. visceral
d. parietal

266. The massage technique that is best known for its soothing effect, and is useful in the treatment of peripheral neuritis is?

a. vibration
b. tapotement
c. deep effleurage
d. petrissage

267. To empty the veins and lymphatics, use?

a. deep effleurage
b. kneading movement
c. tapotement
d. Chinese pressure points

268. When giving a massage, deep stroking movements are most effective when?

a. relieving pain in an inflamed area
b. treating a part that is in a state of relaxation
c. applying initial treatment to establish a therapeutic relationship
d. treating a client who is thin-skinned and in fragile condition

269. In conventional western massage, which technique moves one layer of tissue over or against another?

a. friction
b. gliding strokes
c. percussion
d. joint movement

270. What is the best method for breaking up adhesions?

a. friction
b. gliding
c. kneading
d. tapotement

271. A deep circular movement during which the fingers do NOT move across the surface of the skin is known as?

a. Rolfing
b. effleurage
c. friction
d. shiatsu

272. According to basic massage theory, the purpose of friction movement is to?

a. loosen adhesions
b. provide deep static pressure
c. “milk” a muscle
d. Lift the muscle belly away from the bone

273. Deep, fully formed scar tissue responds best to?

a. petrissage and friction
b. tapotement
c. effleurage and friction
d. it cannot be helped

274. A term that means scar tissue formation is?

a. fibrosis
b. fibritis
c. granulation
d. adhesions

275. Surgical scar with pain radiating below the scar?

a. refer to physician
b. massage
c. massage proximal
d. massage distal

276. Which massage technique can be described as “milking” a muscle?

a. friction
b. effleurage
c. petrissage
d. tapotement

277. A massage movement in which the therapist grasps, picks up, and compresses a muscle?

a. percussion
b. petrissage
c. friction
d. manipulation

278. Which basic technique is used in lymphatic drainage massage?

a. gliding strokes
b. pumping
c. static pressure
d. stretching

279. To stimulate lymphatic drainage use _________________.

a. pumping
b. friction
c. stretching
d. tapotement

280. Which combination of massage techniques stretches and broadens soft tissue?

a. effleurage and wringing
b. kneading and percussion
c. kneading and friction
d. percussion and friction

281. Which two massage techniques stimulate a contract/relax response to enhance muscle tone?

a. effleurage and vibration
b. kneading and percussion
c. kneading and friction
d. percussion and friction

282. Which of the following massage techniques can endanger the kidneys?

a. percussion over the sacrum and gluteal muscles
b. percussion in the lower thoracic region of the back
c. deep cross fiber friction over the lumbar paraspinal muscles
d. linear friction over the lumbar paraspinal muscles

283. Which of the following is recommended to reduce obesity?

a. effleurage
b. petrissage
c. friction
d. none of the above

284. Vibration will cause?

a. relaxation of the muscles
b. constriction of the muscles
c. a soothing effect on the nervous system
d. no effect

285. Clapping, tapping, or beating the skin issue is?

a. vibration
b. percussion
c. contraindicated
d. petrissage

286. The term which describes the effleurage toward the heart is?

a. Lymphatic
b. Centrifugal
c. Swedish
d. Centripetal

287. Give the term that describes the reclining face-up position.

a. prone
b. supine
c. hyperextended
d. rest position

288. What is ischemia?

a. inflammation of a vein
b. decreased blood flow to the tissue
c. tissue death
d. hardening of the arteries

289. Which of the following is most often used during the initial visit?

a. daily record form
b. progress report
c. medical history
d. billing statement

290. What would be most beneficial to someone with osteoporosis?

a. yoga
b. meditation
c. weight bearing exercise
d. you cant help this

291. Which bodywork technique best addresses the connective tissue that wraps individual muscles?

a. Reiki
b. therapeutic touch
c. Rolfing
d. Shiatsu

292. Tongue and hara diagnosis are part of the assessment procedure in which bodywork technique?

a. Reiki
b. Shiatsu
c. Rolfing
d. therapeutic touch

293. Oriental massage involves the techniques of listening, touching, and?

a. telling
b. amouring
c. balancing
d. asking

294. In oriental modalities, your geographical center is reffered to as?

a. hara
b. tan tien
c. ki
d. jitsu

295. Balancing the energy systems and polarity are addressed by?

a. Alexander
b. Cyriax
c. Rolfing
d. Shiatsu and Acupuncture

296. Which increases flexibility and improves circulation and relaxation?

a. guided visualization
b. meditation
c. yoga
d. shiatsu

297. Which is absolutely necessary for a therapist’s personal hygiene?

a. using clean sheets
b. using fresh oil
c. keeping hands clean
d. keeping a positive attitude

298. If the client is uncomfortable with disrobing?

a. work through the clothes
b. tell client it is necessary
c. convince client of the benefits
d. refuse massage

299. Which of the following is a contraindication for massage?

a. eczema
b. callus
c. chicken pox
d. the area around a decubitus ulcer

300. In Shiatsu, complimentary yet opposite forces that affect energy flow are known as?

a. tsubos
b. kyo and jitsu
c. yin and yang
d. hara

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...Immigrant Minority Health: Disparities in Self-Reported Diabetes Mellitus among Arab, Chaldean, and Black Americans in Southeast Michigan. Hikmet Jamil, Monty Fakhouri, Florence Dallo, Thomas Templin, Radwan Khoury, Haifa Fakhouri Wayne State University, University of Texas Immigrant Minority Health: Disparities in Self-Reported Diabetes Mellitus among Arab, Chaldean, and Black Americans in Southeast Michigan Abstract This study shows a disproportionately amount of minorities are affected by diabetes mellitus in the medical community. This study reveals statistic facts as well as documented facts. Research has consistently documented that on almost any measure, minorities have poorer health than do other groups. Not many minorities report to their primary care physician for some signs and symptoms due to diabetes mellitus. The United States population has become increasingly diverse, making it a reliable source of information on the reports of this disease. This research will show facts as to why immigrant minorities have disparities among minorities. Social, economic, and environmental factors are research to find the disparities of this deadly disease. This study examines the effects it has on three ethnic groups: Arabs, Chaldean, and Blacks. Using...

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...I am an analytical person, and feel very comfortable translating daily serving sizes into understandable measures, determining just how much of any given mineral I am getting in a supplement, and interpreting the chemical-babble often found on processed foods these days. So, it was a bit of a humbling experience to find that I was not guaranteed an A on the assignment, and even worse, that although I thought I had all the answers, I was really short on solutions. My primary error was to think that knowledge about food was equivalent to eating well. Once I began the assignment in earnest, I realized that I really had not been using what I knew to benefit my health. Over the past few weeks, I have made a sincere, though not 100% successful effort to apply what I learned when creating my Healthy Eating Plan, and have summarized the results below. In terms of general eating habits, I have often jokingly described myself as person who does not real eat a lot of meat. As detailed in my Healthy Eating Plan, I relied on dairy as a primary protein source, particularly hard cheeses, as many yogurts, for instance, are actually not vegetarian. One notable conclusion I reached from the assignment was that I was really over emphasizing dairy to fill my protein needs. I was already having a sufficient, healthy intake of other protein substitutes for meat, such as Garden burgers and soy proteins like Yves vegetarian cold cuts. Another concern was that because of food choices such as...

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...Health and Wellness All people all over the world need health and wellness. Health and wellness are very necessary. Health refers to a state of complete mental, physical, and social well-being, and not just in absence of diseases. Wellness refers to condition of physical and mental health. The paper will start by describing health and wellness. After that we will describe the dimensions of health and wellness. And also we will describe the multiple factors of health and wellness. Finally, we will be discussed the importance of being healthy and well and also the ways to maintain your health and wellness. Health and wellness are the most important aspects in our life, so everyone should know the definition of each one. Health is the general condition of a person's mind and body, usually meaning to be free from illness, injury or pain. Wellness is an approach to healthcare that confirm preventing illness and extending life, as contrary to confirm treating diseases. There are many dimensions of health and wellness. First, there are many dimensions of health such as physical health, intellectual health, emotional health, social health, and Spiritual health. The physical health refers to the state of the body - its compositions, development, functions, and maintenance. There are a few ways to ensure good physical health such as: -Eat nutritious food to keep the body and mind energized. -Water is necessary for cleansing the body. And -Fitness through exercise. Then, the...

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...2011 Healthy Home: Healthy Me Review of the Northside Community Service 2011 Severe Domestic Squalor & Hoarding Pilot Project Institute of Child Protection Studies Australian Catholic University October 2011 October 1, 2011 [HEALTHY HOME: HEALTHY ME] Acknowledgements We would like to acknowledge and thank the clients of Healthy Home Healthy Me who made themselves available to talk about their experiences of the program. Thanks also to the range of stakeholders who participated in the review. Report by: Megan Layton Morag McArthur This project was commissioned by Northside Community Service. Thanks to Justin Barker and Tim Moore for their comments on the draft. Institute of Child Protection Studies Canberra Campus Australian Catholic University PO Box 256 DICKSON ACT 2602 icps@signadou.acu.edu.au Phone: 02 6209 1225 Fax: 02 6209 1216 http://www.acu.edu.au/icps/ Institute of Child Protection Studies, p2 October 1, 2011 [HEALTHY HOME: HEALTHY ME] Foreword by Northside Community Service ‘Healthy Home Healthy Me’ was an 18 week pilot program that supported nine clients to reduce severe domestic squalor and chronic hoarding within Canberra’s Inner North. During 2009/10, the Aged and Disability Home and Community Care (HACC) program at Northside Community Service (NCS) had received a high number of referrals for people presenting with issues related to hoarding and/or squalor. Prior to the pilot program, all nine of the program participants initially...

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...Throughout this semester taking this course I have learned a lot about different Health goals that I can apply through life. There were also five top presentations that I really enjoyed and five that I did not really understand or really was not able to get into it or the first presentation that I really enjoyed was health goal number eighty by Cody Walker. He spoke about investigating public and international health needs. He taught the class about different health agencies that help us such as the National Institutes of Health, Food and Drug Administration and the Indian Health Services. He also talked about poverty in other countries compared to us in the United States. The next presentation that I enjoyed was Deziree Cobbs and she spoke on health goal number sixteen. This health goal was I will practice Abstinence from Sex. She spoke about what the topic really was and not just its definition. She talked about the benefits of practicing abstinence which are promoting good health, safety, following law, self respect, and most of all good character. Annaliese Shuler presentation I also enjoyed. She did here presentation on Developing Skills to Prevent Eating disorders. She talked about what an eating disorder was and also the different types of disorders that I did not know about. She also spoke about the reasons why people have eating disorders. A few reasons why people have eating disorders is because of there body image, their discomfort with their sexual maturity, and pressure...

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...ABSTRACT What are the differences in competencies between nurses prepared at the Associate-degree level versus the Baccalaureate-degree level? What are the advantages of the health care industry employing more nurses with a higher level of education? Is raising the educational standard for the nursing profession a means to help improve overall care? Studies have been done to understand the differences, if any, between the two levels of nursing. The health care industry is constantly focused on improving the efficiency and quality of care for patients and the community. These studies and comparisons between the two levels of nursing education are in effort to continue to enhance patient care and treatment outcome. The differences in competencies between nurses prepared at the Associate-degree level (ADN) versus the Baccalaureate-degree level (BSN) in nursing are important in specific settings of the profession where leadership and authoritative decision is required, in my opinion. The advanced nursing education curriculum that is prepared to transition an RN to a BSN has been “designed to facilitate the students’ abilities to creatively respond to continuously changing health care systems throughout the world” (Grand Canyon University College of Nursing Philosophy). I believe the two separate programs both help to prepare nurses with the practical skills needed to be successful in any basic clinical setting, while the BSN helps to build upon these skills and increases...

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...Course: Health & Society Course ID: HEA101 Course Instructor: Kazi Md. Abul Kalam Azad Contact Information: Room 10010, 10th floor, School of Public Health, IUB. E-mail: akazad71@gmail.com Course Duration: January –April, 2011 on Mondays and Wednesdays Course content: The course will provide a brief overview of human anatomy and functioning of the body. The course will also look into elements of the society that improve or negatively impacts people’s health and well-being. A contextual focus is important to understand individual and community health and health disparities within a multicultural, global context. Different understandings of health, well-being and illness, how people cope and live with disease, and how health and illness is shaped by contextual factors will be seen. Learning outcomes: At the end of the course the students will know the fundamentals of how the human body functions and factors associated with illness and disease. They will know how health of people around the globe has been shaped over time with changes in sanitation, food consumption, and education, access to diverse kind of health facilities e.t.c. Students learn to engage in critical reflection of health related issues in any particular populations and take look into it with a diversified perspective in order to plan, implement and evaluate population health initiatives. Teaching: The teaching will be given through lectures, class room discussions/seminars of health related...

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...Health and social care 1) How is this course related to my previous work? This course relate to my previous work because I was a cleaning and in health and social care there would be a unit about hazards and I should understand that Slips, trips and falls can have a serious impact on the lives of employees and those being cared for. Also this course relates to my previous work because I was the person that had to beware if there were no flooring type, footwear, levels of lighting, contrast between floors, walls and doors, and obstructions or other trip hazards. 2) How is the course going to help in the future? The course is going to help in the future because if I wanted to become a doctor it will be helpful for me because one of my family member was in hospital and if I was a doctor and I could of help it would of been better so I think this is the course for me and for my future, well tell me tell you, if i do health and social I can help different type of people around the world even in my own country if I had too, so I can stop illness form spreading from different country to another. Nursery or school 3) What do you think you will learn on the course, including any particular subjects of interest? The thing that I will learn is about how to value people and care for them, how to respect people, how to communicate with different type of people for example, sign language, blind (Braille) and I also think that you should teach maths so I can have an understand...

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...The easiest way to write the paper is to compare "normal" to RDAs, then compare "healthy" to the RDAs, then compare "healthy" to "normal", and then explain setbacks and describe how to improve your eating habits. For your information the RDA percentages are 20% protein, 25-30% fats and 55-60% carbohydrates Health and wellness is how society refers to being not being ill, injured or in pain and are usually referring to the human body. The World Health Organization (WHO) defined health in its broader sense in 1946 as "a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity (Official Records of the World Health Organization, no. 2, p. 100). There are many measures people take in order to not get sick or ill. Some of these actions are called preventive medicine. This is an important measure that many people do not implement in their lifestyle. People usually think of treating the illness once they have it in their mind, body or even soul, that’s right soul. Since it touched that subject I will briefly add that my preventive medicine for my soul is Jesus Christ. An important factor of preventive medicine is food and what we ingest into our bodies. This is a key factor in whether we want to have overall healthy lives with healthy bodies and prevent future disease because of what we consume. That is one of the main reasons why it is important to take classes like this one in order that we and society as a whole can become healthy...

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