Answers 1. a) The passages says that, idealism is the epistemological doctrine that nothing can be directly known outside of the minds of thinking beings, which does not mean that nothing at all can be known outside the mind.

2. d) The passage says that, Hegel asserts that the twin aims of philosophy are to account for the contradictions apparent in human experience and also simultaneously to resolve and preserve these contradictions by showing their compatibility at a higher level of examination.

3. d) The topic idealism falls under the branch of philosophy and it is also a theory.

4. d) Hegel admitted that his ideas were not new to that of the existing ones and that he merely felt he needed to complete them.

Explanation for questions 5 to 7: Correct Answer: ABA ‘Since’ indicates a consequence. Since they failed to conquer (subjugate) the tribes, they built a wall to keep out, or ‘exclude’ the tribes. The question at the end suggests that this attempt was misguided (or overoptimistic’) as no wall can ‘deter’ the determined. The word ‘deter’ is also better than the other options as the wall was to exclude the natives not to conquer or limit them.

Explanation for Questions 8 to 10: Correct Answer: BDD. You need to know that ‘bantering’ means ‘playful’. So, although the talk seemed playful, it actually masked bad feeling. Here we have a ‘good word’ followed by ‘bad word’ situation. Hence we choose ‘amicable’ for the good word, and ‘antagonism’ for the bad. The first blank needs care because of the double negative. Simon apparently was not usually bad at seeing such things; hence we can say he was not ‘unperceptive’.

11. d) In this passage, statement C makes sense as the start of the passage because on the whole, the passage informs us about the type of skin female and men possess which are entirely different from each other. Statement A should be followed by statement D as a comparison is made between female and male skin. Option d) makes sense as the right answer compared to the other options which are irrelevant and make no sense in the arrangement. Therefore, option d) is the correct answer.

12. a) In this passage, statement C makes sense as the start of the passage because on the whole, the passage informs us about the responsibility that comes with having a pet. A lot needs to be done and taken into consideration after having a pet. Statement C informs us that keeping pets is no harm but the responsibility that comes with it can be quite extreme. Statement D should be the last statement because from the entire information, a final conclusion is made. Option a) makes sense as the right answer compared to the other options which are irrelevant and make no sense in the arrangement. Therefore, option a) is the correct answer.

13. c) In this passage, statement C makes sense as the start of the passage because on the whole, the passage informs us about the origin of the word collage and how it came into being. Having statement C as the start of the passage makes perfect sense compared to the other statements. th Statement D should follow sentence C because talking about the roots of collage in the 10 century th makes sense and then talking about its roots in the 13 century is appropriate. Therefore, option c) makes sense as the right answer compared to the other options.

14. b) In this passage, statement C makes sense as the start of the passage because on the whole, the passage informs us about a type of process known as wedging and also what is mainly done in this process. Statement A should logically follow statement C. Therefore, option b) makes sense as the right answer compared to the other and is thus the correct answer.

15. d) The passage gives out all the information mentioned in the three statements.

16. b) According to the passage, a UFO hotspot is a location where numerous UFO sightings have been seen before, thus making it more attractive to believers who wish to spot some more.

17. c) The passage is analyzing the entire issue of UFO. The facts, the assumptions, the beliefs and the scientific reasoning that says UFOs probably don’t exist. The rest of the option do not fit into the concept of the passage.

18. c) The believers are accusing the sceptics of hiding the evidence, thus hiding the truth. This is their strong argument in support of their belief that the UFOs exist.

19. a) The word ‘enhancing’ is the exact meaning of the word ‘accentuating’ and most appropriate as per the usage of this sentence.

20. c) The word ‘disposition’ is the exact meaning of the word ‘temperament’.

21. d) The word ‘sporadically’ is the exact opposite of the word ‘incessantly’.

22. a) The word ‘exacerbate’ is the exact opposite of the word ‘ameliorate’.

23. b) The statement is correct as compared to others because the statement is in simple present tense and the use of singular form of words is appropriate, whereas in the wrong options there are mistakes related to tense i.e. use of past tense or use of plural form words instead of singular form.

24. a) The statement is correct as compared to others because the statement is in active voice present tense and there is subject verb agreement and also the use of singular form words is appropriate, whereas in the wrong options there are mistakes related to tense i.e. use of either past tense or the subject verb don’t agree with each other or there is use of plural form words instead of singular form.

25. b)The main statement concludes that everyone must invest their savings into the stock market for multiplication of their surplus funds; option b) weakens this by presenting the possibility of the downside of investing in the stock market. Option a) does weaken the statement but is not as strong as option b). Option c) and d) are talking of other matters relating to the issue.

26. a) The main statement states that green tea helps in preventing the mentioned diseases, but nowhere does it mention that it would also help in controlling or curing the same diseases once they have already hit the body. This seems to be the greatest flaw of the reasoning offered. Options b) and c) are irrelevant as both don’t help in finding the flaws in the statement. Option d) still talks about regular consumption along with medication.

27. b) The main statement affirms that regular exercise for a prolonged period can keep stress levels low and in check. The additional fact that would pose the most serious doubt would logically be if an alternate view is offered, such as that high levels of physical activity, contrastingly, can also tire the body and mind and trigger higher levels of stress. Option a) provides a solution rather than posing a serious doubt while option c) and d) are related but talking about different aspects.

28. d) The main statement concludes that children and adolescents commit crimes because of poverty and lack of basic resources, thus, the fact that could weaken the conclusion can only be when there is an alternate strong reason provided for children committing crime, in this case, the availability of luxurious choices to the richer class, which pushes them into such crimes. Option a) lends support to the main statement rather than weakening it. Options b) and c) provide a solution to the problem being spoken of rather than offering a weakening fact.

29. d) Option d) is spotted with an error and the rectified statement should be ‘thereby often preventing climatic extremes’ because the meaning of the word often is habitual or repeatedly which is relevant in above statement.

30. c) Option c) is spotted with an error and the rectified statement should be ‘change to indicate the’ because any change in name due to change in the physical form of the substance is to point at or to indicate the change. 31. b) Option b) is spotted with an error and the rectified statement should be ‘In dreams more often than not’ because of the grammatical mistake in using ‘most’ prior to the word ‘often’. Whereas, ‘more often’ is grammatically sound hence it should rather be used in the above statement.

32. b) Option b) is spotted with an error and the correct statement should be ‘minute fragments derived from the’. The meaning of the word ‘derived’ is resulting or consequently which fits appropriately in the intended meaning of the above statement, in place of ‘of the’ which is inappropriate.

33. d) For divisibility by 11, the difference between sum of digits at even and odd places should be 0 or multiple of 11. Sum of digits at odd places is 4. Sum of digits at even places are 3, A, B whose sum can be 4, 15, 26 etc. If sum is 4, then A + B = 1 which is not possible as A is a Square of B. Sum 26 or more is not possible. Therefore, sum is 15 and A + B = 12. The possible values of A and B are 9 and 3.

34. d) 39% of 750 = 292.5 65% of 850 = 552.5 So, 39% of 750 + 65% of 850 = 292.5 + 552.5 = 845

35. c) Charge of AC rooms = 3000 × 120 = Rs. 360000 Let the number of non AC rooms = X Charge of non AC room = Rs. 2000X Average per room =
360000 + 2000 x = 2500 x + 120

= 360000 + 2000x = 2500x + 300000 60000 = 500X X = 120 Total rooms = 120 + 120 = 240.

36. d) The train covers 84 × 8 = 672 km in 8 hrs Since, 672 kms =
1 3 th the distance, then th distance = 672 × 3 = 2016 kms 4 4

Time remaining = 24 – 8 = 16 hrs Speed =
Dis tan ce 2016 = = 126 km / hr Time 16

Hence, the speed will have to be increased by 126 – 84 = 42 km/hr

37. a) From 10 people we may have, (3 women and 2 men) or (4 women and 1 man) or (5 women) = ( C3 × C2) + ( C4 × C1) + C5 = 252
8 2 8 2 8

38. b) Average number of students enrolled in Mechanical = 436. Average number of students enrolled in Civil = 621. Their difference = 185.

39. a) Total number of students enrolled in Electrical = 2373. Total number of students enrolled in Information Technology = 2443. Their difference = 70.

40.d) Total number of students enrolled in Civil in 2006 = 640. Total number of students enrolled in Mechanical in 2006 = 485. Their ratio = 128 : 97.

41. a) Percentage increase in the number of students in Electrical = 46% Percentage increase in the number of students in Electronics =23% Percentage increase in the number of students in Mechanical = 33% Percentage increase in the number of students in Civil = 29% Percentage increase in the number of students in Information Technology = 44.5%

42.c) Increase in the number of students in Mechanical in the year 2002 = 26. Increase in the number of students in Mechanical in the year 2003 = 29. Increase in the number of students in Mechanical in the year 2004 = 49. Increase in the number of students in Mechanical in the year 2005 = 53. Increase in the number of students in Mechanical in the year 2006 = decrease. Increase in the number of students in Mechanical in the year 2007 = 25. Thus, the maximum increase has happened in the year 2005.

43.a) Statement A: Is sufficient to answer the question. By knowing the principal (from the question) and the interest for two years (Statement A), we can easily find the rate percentage. Statement B: Is not sufficient to answer the question. We do not know, for which two years is the difference in the SI and CI given. It is not mentioned, whether it is the first two years or any other two years.

44. c) Statement A: Not sufficient to answer the question If the product of the digits is 28, there are two such combinations viz. 47 and 74. Statement B: Not sufficient to answer the question as there can be multiple possibilities of digit in the units place being smaller than the other one. Combining both statements together however, will give us a unique possibility i.e. 74.

45. d) Numbers of the type 16XY, leaving remainder 10, when divided by 11 are: 1605, 1616, 1627, 1638, 1649, 1660, 1671, 1682, 1693 out of which 1616 and 1660 are divisible by 4. So possible values of X or Y are 0, 1, and 6.

46. c) Washing machines will beep together again at the interval of = (LCM of 12, 30, 40) mins = 120 mins. 47. a)

X1 aZ12 and

X1 a 1
3

Y1

= constant

X1Z12
3

=

X 2 Z 22
3

Y1

Y2

(2 × 9) = (
2
X2 = 2

X 2 × 36 8

)

X2 = 4

48. c) This is a case of successive percentage, since radius is a linear dimension and area is a ‘squared’ dimension. Hence, if the radius of the circle increase by 6%, then its area increases by 6 + 6 + 49. d) n(S) = 36. Let E be the event that the sum is an even number. Therefore, E = {(1, 1), (1, 3), (1, 5), (2, 2), (2, 4), (2, 6), (3, 1), (3, 3), (3, 5), (4, 2), (4, 4), (4, 6), (5, 1), (5, 3), (5, 5), (6, 2), (6, 4), (6, 6)} Therefore, n(E) = 18 Therefore, P (E ) = n(E) 18 = = 0 .5 n(S) 36
6×6 i.e. 12.36% 100

50. c)

S

r
S 2

2r

S As seen in the diagram, for a square inscribed in a semi-circle, S2 +   = r2 2
Hence, Area of this square = S2 =
4r 2 5

2

or

5S 2 = r2. 4

For the square inscribed in a circle, the diagonal is the diameter of the circle i.e. 2r. Hence, Area of this square = d2 4r 2 = 2 2 4r 2 4r 2 : 2 5

Hence, the ratio of the two areas =

= 2 : 5.

51. d) (8 × 20 + 12 × 15) n < 6000 ⇒ 340n < 6000 Maximum n = 17

∴ n can take a maximum value of 17. Hence, the maximum number of widgets that the factory can manufacture per day is 17.
52. b) Amount of rupees that remained unused per day with the maximum possible production = 6000 – 340n= 6000 – 340(17) = 220.

53. a) Let B’s speed be x km/hr, then A’s speed is

3x 15 x km/hr. A travels for a distance of km in 5 2 2 3x 5x hours. A and B cross each other 9 hours after B starts. A’s speed relative to B is x + = . 2 2 15 x 120 − 2 =9⇒x=4 ∴ 5x 2 3x 3 = (4 ) = 6 km / hr . ∴ A’s speed = 2 2

54. b) Total number of balls = 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 11 + 17 = 42; 2 Number of blue balls = = × 42 = 14. 6

55. a) As stated, when the men first meet, they are 720 yards from one end of the track. The combined distance they have travelled must equal the length of the track. When each man reaches the other end, the combined distance must be twice the length of the track. On meeting on their return, they must have travelled a total of three times the length of the track. Since one man has covered 720 yards on the first meeting, and when they meet again he has travelled three times as far, he must have travelled 2160 yards. Since he is 400 yards from where he started, the length of the track must be 2160 – 400 yards = 1760 yards.

56. d) Statement A: Is sufficient to answer the question. From this question we can find the SP of 8 chairs (since we know the SP of one chair from the question), which is equal to CP of 10 chairs. This will give us the CP of 1 chair and hence the profit per chair. Statement B: Is sufficient to answer the question. If by selling 4 such chairs, 25% profit is earned, then by selling 1 chair, again 25% profit is earned. Hence, by knowing the profit percentage, and the selling price (from the main question), we can easily find the actual profit.

57. d) 7 men do 7% of a work in 7 days. 7% of the work = 49 man-days of work. Thus, 28% of the work = 49 × 4 = 196 man-days of work. To complete this work in 28 days (Feb 2011), we will require
196 = 7 days. 28

58. b) Since the number doubles every hour, 1 bacterium would take 6 hours to become 64. Thus, the time taken to go from 64 to full jar would be 6 hours less than that to go from 1 to 64. Hence, now, it would be full at 6.00 a.m. on Wednesday.

59. a) In the first solution, there is In the second solution, there is

5 of milk. 9

3 of milk. (Note that water is to milk, and not milk is to water is 7 : 3) 10 1 of milk. 3

We need to add these, and get milk to water in the ratio 1 : 2 i.e. It is, a simple case of allegation:
5 9 3 10 50 90

27 90

1 3

30 90

3

20

60. b) P (Black, Green, Orange) = P (Black in 1st toss) × P (Green in 2nd toss) × P (Orange in 3rd toss)
3

=

C1 C1

2

6

×

C1 C1

1

6

×

C1 C1

6

=

3 2 1 1 × × = 6 6 6 36

61. b) We know a + b = 18

…(1)

and a – b = 24 or b – a = 24 Let a – b = 24 …(2)

Adding equations (1) and (2) we get, 2a = 42⇒a = 21 b = 21 – 24 = –3 a = 21, b = –3 Let b – a = 24 …(3)

Adding equations (1) and (3), we get 2b = 42⇒b = 21 a = 21 – 24 = –3 In both cases, the product of the roots, ab = (21)(–3) = –63 ∴ The required quadratic equation is x2 – (a + b)x + ab = 0 x2 – 18x – 63 = 0

62. b) S = 3 + 5 + 9 + 17 + 33 +… + a10 S = 0 + 3 + 5 + 9 + 17 + 33 + … + a9+ a10 By subtraction, 0 = 3 + 2 + 4 + 8 + 16 … + a n–1 – a10 ∴ a10 = 3+ (2 + 4 + 8 + 16 … (n – 1) terms)

=3

2 2 n −1 − 1 …(Q 2 + 4 + 8 + 16 are in G.P.) 2 −1

(

)

=3+

(2

n −1

−2

2
10

)=2

n

+1

∴ a10 = 2

+ 1 = 1024 + 1 = 1025

63. c) 2 Factors of 420 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 7

No of divisors = (2 + 1) × (1 + 1) × (1 + 1) × (1 + 1) = 24

64. c) Total number of students in school = 1430.

Number of students who failed = 90. Hence, overall fail percentage =
90 = 6% (approximately) 1430

65. d) Total number of pass students of Class VI = 150.

Total number of pass students of Class VIII = 220. Respective ratio = 15 : 22

66. d) Total number of pass students in class VI = 150.

Total number of pass students in class VII = 130. Total number of pass students in class VIII = 220. Total number of pass students in class IX = 300. Total number of pass students in class X = 550. Hence, maximum number of Pass Students are from Class X.
67. d) Total number of Pass students in School E = 320.

Total number of classes = 5 Average number of Pass students in School E = 320 ÷ 5 = 64.

68. a) Total number of Fail students of Class IX = 30

Total number of Fail students of Class X = 10. Respective ratio = 3 : 1.

69. a) Without putting decimal points the numbers will be 123, 135, 210.

So, HCF of 123, 135, 210 will be 3. LCM of 123, 135, 210 will be 77490. Therefore, HCF of 1.23, 1.35 and 2.1 will be 0.03 and LCM of 1.23, 1.35 and 2.1 will be 774.9.

70. b) Approximate trader’s gain percentage = Difference in weights
=

(1000 − 786 ) × 100 = 27 %
786

71. d) Let the principal amount = Rs. 100

Then, simple interest in first case =

100 × 5 × 8 = Rs. 40 100 100 × 4 × 6 = Rs. 24 100

And simple interest in second case =

Difference in simple interest = 40 – 24 = 16 Actual difference = 144 (9 times of Rs. 16) Therefore, principal = 9 × 100 = Rs. 900.

72. b) Ashok and Mohan together complete

1 part of the work in a day. 12

Similarly Mohan and Vinod complete

1 th part of the work in a day. 15

1 1 be the fraction of work completed by Ashok in a day and be the fraction of work completed n m by Mohan in a day.

Let

As per the problem,

1 1 1 1 1 1 + = and + = n m 12 2 n m 15

Solving, we get n = 30 and m = 20 Hence Mohan finishes the job alone in 20 days
73. c)

As we can see in the diagram, the ratio of the thickness of the pool and the wall is 25 : 11.
25 11

This means, if the area of the inner circle is 25 sq. ft, then the area of the outer circle will be 36 sq. ft. (i.e. 25 + 11). In other words, the ratio of the areas of the inner and the outer circle is 25 : 36.

This means, the ratio of the radii of the inner and the outer circle is 5 : 6. The difference in the two radii, will be the thickness of the wall which is 1 part (6 – 1). However, the thickness of the wall is given as 4 ft.

Thus, if 1 part = 4 ft., then 5 parts will be 20 ft. (which will be the radius of the pool).

74. d) Number of candidates appearing for the MAT in Town B = 32,000

Number of candidates appearing for the MAT in Town E = 25,000 Respective ratio = 32 : 25

75. c) Total number of candidate appearing from all towns = 1,66,000

Total number of towns = 6 Average number of candidates = 1,66,000 ÷ 6 = 27600

76. d) Number of candidates appearing for the MAT in Town A = 17,000

Number of candidates appearing for the MAT in Town F = 37,000 Required percentage =
17000 = 46% (approximately) 37000

77. b) Number of candidates appearing for the MAT in Towns A, B and C = 69,000

Number of candidates appearing for the MAT in Towns D, E and F = 97,000 Respective ratio = 69 : 97

78. a) Number of candidates appearing for the MAT in Town C = 20,000

Total number of candidate appearing from all towns = 1,66,000 Required percentage =
20000 = 12% (approximately) 166000

79. b) Statement A: Not sufficient to answer the question, as it talks about ages of Shalu and Sugandha and not Neera and Shalu.

Statement B: Is sufficient to answer the question, as it is comparing the ages of Neera and Shalu, 4 years hence.
80. d) Statement A. Not sufficient to answer the question. Out of 6 people, we will only know the salary of 2 (i.e. C and E). To find the salary of A, we would require the salaries of G, H, J as well. Statement B. Not sufficient to answer the question. Out of 6 people, we will only know the salary of 2 (i.e. G and H). To find the salary of A, we would require the salaries of C, E, J as well.

If we combine the two statements, we would still only have the salaries of only C, E, G and H. To find the salary of A, we would still require the salary of J.

81. d) All the conclusions follow. 82. c) Both the conclusion follow as they help in preventing or minimizing accidents.

83. a) From the given information, we have the following arrangement. A B C D E F G

Green Yellow White Red Blue Purple Pink

Apple Litchi Orange Banana Guava Peach Pineapple

Therefore, we can say that, D likes red.
84. c) From the given information, we have the following arrangement. A B C D E F G

Green Yellow White Red Blue Purple Pink

Apple Litchi Orange Banana Guava Peach Pineapple

Therefore, we can say that, E likes guava.

85. b) From the given information, we have the following arrangement. A B C D E F G

Green Yellow White Red Blue Purple Pink

Apple Litchi Orange Banana Guava Peach Pineapple

Therefore, we can say that F likes purple.

86. a) From the given information, we have the following arrangement. A B C D E F G

Green Yellow White Red Blue Purple Pink

Apple Litchi Orange Banana Guava Peach Pineapple

Therefore, we can say that, F likes peach.

87. d) From the given information, we have the following arrangement. A B C D E F G

Green Yellow White Red Blue Purple Pink

Apple Litchi Orange Banana Guava Peach Pineapple

Therefore, we can say that C likes orange and G likes pineapple.
Explanations for questions 88 to 90:

The logic of re-arrangement is: alternate number and word, starting with word. The arrangement happens from left to right, with numbers in ascending order and the words in reverse alphabetical order.
88. c) Step II: Step III: Step IV: Step V: Step VI: Step VII:

21 white direct 72status front 37 69 21 white 37 direct 72status front 69 21 white 37 status direct 72front 69 21 white 37 status 69direct 72front 21 white 37 status 69front direct 72 21 white 37 status 69front 72 direct

Thus, the arrangement is completed in the Step VII, which is five more steps from Step II.
89. d) Input: Step I: Step II: Step III:

17 85pearls garland 67 93 restriction judgments 17 restriction 85pearls garland 67 93 judgments 17 restriction 67 85pearls garland 93 judgments 17 restriction 67 pearls 85garland 93 judgments

90. a) Step II: Step III: Step IV: Step V:

26 shop finance 48game music 63 37 26 shop 37finance 48game music 63 26 shop 37musicfinance 48game 63 26 shop 37music48finance game 63

91. b) “… new products are being created, new ways of providing services are being implemented… ” justifies option b) rather than option a).

92. a) “ … need not be balanced ..”justifies only option a) and not options b) and c). Option d) is out of scope.

93. c) Brass is an alloy of Zinc and Copper. Rest all are pure metals.

94. d) Looking at the positions of D in LOAD and VIDE and comparing the corresponding codes, it is very clear that D is coded as 5 in both case and it is a one-to-one correspondence.

Hence, O is coded as #, V is coded as @ and E is coded as 6. Hence the code for DOVE is 5#@6.
95. b) Option a) is incorrect, because ‘44’ is M and not A. Option c) is incorrect, because ‘69’ is G and not N. Option d) is incorrect, because ‘76’ is Z and not I.

96. d) There are five such pairs; viz. DI, AE, TV, AD, NO 97. d) The 1st, 3rd, 4th, 7th and the 8th letters of the word DIAMETRICAL are word DIAMETRICAL are D, A, M, R, E and R.

No meaningful word can be formed using these letters.

98. b) Statement B acts as a direct cause for statement A.

99. a) Though one can object to the word ‘only’ in the argument, on analysis it can be seen that the argument is not an overstatement, hence strong.

100. a) None of the three conclusion follows logically form the given statements.

Explanation for 101 to 103: Set 2A: The straight clues which are available are tabulated below: Days Chapters Pages Time required Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday

3

1 hour

Now let us analyse other clues. It is given that Chapters taught on Wednesday and Thursday required more time than that on any other day. Also it is given that except for Monday and Friday. The chapters took time corresponding to their number of pages. So 3 hours and 4hours were required for chapters having 50 pages and 60 pages respectively. Also these two chapters were taught on Wednesday and Thursday though we don’t know the order. Further, the chapter which took 2 hours was not taught on Tuesday. So it means that chapter which took 2.5 hours was taught on Tuesday and that which took 2 hours was taught on Friday. As a reason, chapter taught on Tuesday has to be necessarily of 30 pages to satisfy other criteria. So it is chapter 2 which is taught on

Tuesday. Correspondingly, chapters taught on Monday and Friday were of 20 and 40 pages respectively. The following table is achieved
Days Chapters Pages Time required Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday

3 20 1 hour

2 30 2.5 hours 50 or 60 3 or 4 hours 50 or 60 3 or 4 hours 40 2 hours

101. b)

102. c)

103. a)

104. d) We know that on Wednesday and Thursday chapters which required maximum time were taught. But we cannot say for sure that chapter with highest number of pages was taught on Wednesday. Hence we we cannot conclude whether chapter 1 was taught on Wednesday or chapter 2 was taught on Wednesday or chapter 3 was taught on Wednesday.

105. d) Since chapter 5 was taught on Friday, hence chapter 4 which consumed maximum time was taught on Thursday and chapter 1 was taught on Friday.

106. a) If both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct reason for [A]

107. b) B only. “Last year, an airline interiors firm unveiled …” is a fact. No other sentence can be labelled a fact.

108. a) Statement A serves as the direct cause for statement B.

109. b) Course of action 2 follows as this will address the problem immediately as well as in the long run.

110. d) Neither argument is strong. The yes argument should not be the way the issue is addressed. The no argument sidetracks the issue.

111. a) The first letter is coded by a letter that is three letters ahead, while the second letter is coded by a letter that is three letters behind.

Thus, A + 3 = D and E – 3 = B Thus, J + 3 = M and Q – 3 = N Hence, JQ : MN

112. c) We know about the position of the alphabets.

N 14

M 13

A 1

T 20

∴ NMAT = 14+13 + 1 + 20 = 48.
SNAP = 19 + 14 + 1 + 16 = 50. CET = 3 + 5 + 20 = 28.

48 × 10 = 480 50 × 10 = 500. 28 × 10 = 280

113. d) The number inside each circle is obtained by half the product of the numbers outside the 9×4×2 circle. Hence, = 36 . 2

114. c) The game is TABLETENNIS

The first and the last letter of these words are T and S.

115. d) The series is a combination of two sequences.

+8

+4

+2 47 46

+1

5

10

11

18

23

22

24

25 95

×2+1

×2+1

×2+1

×2+1

∴ 47 should replace 46.

116. d) Alpesh: 32 31 30 29 28 27 26 25 24 23 22 21 …

Chirag:

1

3

5

7

9 11 13 15 17 19 21 23 …

Clearly, both will never call out the same number.
117. a) Option b) is incorrect, because ‘24’ is I and not Y. Option c) is incorrect, because ‘97’ is O and not L. Option d) is incorrect, because ‘34’ is B and not P.

118. d) Going by the options given, as option a) does not satisfy condition (iii), it can be eliminated. As option b) does not satisfy condition(ii), it can be eliminated. As option c) does not satisfy condition (iv), it can be eliminated. As option d) satisfies all the conditions, it is the correct answer.

119. d) R cannot be scheduled at the fourth place, since it violates one of conditions (iii) and (iv).

120. d) If R is scheduled at the third place, from conditions (iii) and (iv), V must be scheduled at the fourth place.

∴ T cannot be scheduled at the second place, since it violates condition (ii).

Answer Key
Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. A Q 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. A Q 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. A Q 73. A Q 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. A

a) d) d) d) a) b) a) b) d) d) d) a) c) b) d) b) c) c) a) c) c) a) b) a)

b) a) b) d) d) c) b) b) d) d) c) d) a) b) a) d) a) c) a) c) d) c) a) c)

d) c) d) b) a) b) a) d) d) b) a) b) b) b) c) c) d) d) d) a) a) b) d) b)

c) d) c) d) b) a) b) d) d) c) a) c) b) a) d) c) d) a) b) a) c) d) b) d)

d) b) a) a) b) c) a) d) d) a) b) a) b) d) a) c) d) c) d) d) a) d) d) d)

74.
75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96.