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Plato/Socrates

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Submitted By Scolly1916
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TOPIC ONE:

Socrates seems to come to the conclusion in the Crito that there is a moral obligation on the part of every citizen to obey the laws (or to persuade others to change them). But in the Apology, he mentions two cases of what he seems to think permissible disobedience to the laws: his past refusal to arrest Leon of Salamis, and his stated intention not to comply with judicial gag order. Does he contradict himself? Explain and defend your answer.

NOTES:

- Yes, Plato contradicts himself
- Why? give reasons
- We know from the Gorgias that Socrates believes one must absolutely always avoid committing injustice, but there is no analogous obligation to avoid suffering injustice. So he could consistently hold that one should obey laws that require one to suffer injustice, but should disobey laws that require one to commit injustice. And this is indeed his position. For in the Apology, the laws he announces he would break are commands to commit injustice (since it was unjust to arrest Leon, and it would be unjust to disobey the Oracle’s command to philosophize); but he says one should always obey one’s human superior so long as doing so does not involve disobeying a divine superior or doing something wrong, so even in the Apology he is committed to obeying laws that merely require him to suffer injustice. Likewise, in the Crito, Socrates is committed to obeying the command to suffer injustice (i.e., to let himself be executed), but he says clearly that one should never commit injustice, so even in the Crito he is committed to disobeying any law that required him to commit injustice. (The obligation to keep one’s agreements is likewise qualified by the stipulation that the agreements be just.)
- Socrates thinks its immoral to to obey an order to stop philosophizing (29b - 20b)

INTRO:

In this paper, I will discuss why I believe Socrates does not

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