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King James I

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The crisis of the 1620s involved the final years of King James I of England/VI of Scotland, the beginning of the reign of King Charles I, and the breakdown between the Crown and Parliament. Why was it referred as a crisis-era for some historians? The two kings’ personalities differed, ultimately reflecting their different views of kingship, alongside matters regarding the balance between the royal prerogatives and the parliament privileges. Parliament approached both kings differently. They used both an aggressive or defensive tactics but allowed small subsidies when that worked best with each king. James favoured a pragmatic approach; Charles, unlike his father, had a more intolerant and provocative approach. However, despite their different …show more content…
In the process, he gained the access to the future King of England and Scotland, Charles, and an infuriated most of the realm. This opportunity presented itself to George in 1616, thanks to his mother’s third marriage which enabled himself and his brother, John, onto the Privy Council, in 1609. James, at the time, had exiled his favourite, Robert Carr, for impeachment, which meant that George could figuratively be the ‘new ear to the King’. This would allow him to build tactical relations with the future heir of England and Scotland too. This position made George an influential figure in the lives of both kings, allowing him to be rewarded with an excessive amount of titles for his devotion to the king. Notably, his most controversial title that infuriated many amongst the nobles (throughout the country too), “The Duke of Buckingham”- a title only given to individuals of royal blood; George was birthed by a common family, the Villiers. The title was a sign of status and power, which was inherited through the noble families that had been loyal to the monarchy and defended it. This specific title insulted the sacrifices the noble families’ ancestors made for the crown–even past favourites to James never succeeded such big titles. This arguably confirms his manipulation over James; many held resentment over him for this ability. Later, Charles in his …show more content…
Since, in Charles’ childhood he suffered from poor health and “a speech defect”. This defect carried on into adulthood and kingship, alongside his hatred of being criticised as he took it as a personal insult. Plus, he was unable to walk properly during his youth and learning how to walk later than normal. A consequence of this is that it made him “unapproachable” by others–though not it is not entirely his fault–and left him “uncommunicative”. Barry Howard in his Stuart Age book, stresses how Charles’ poor health and his privileged upbringing has had psychological effect to his personality. Thus, making him take a more intolerant and provocative approach–perhaps, even question whether Charles leaned on George was advice because of his lonely childhood and being shadowed by his father belief of always keeping ‘peace’. Yet, this does not excuse Charles’ intolerant attitude towards Parliament and the country. For example, in 1626 he issued “The Forced Loan” Act; the act is legal, but it did differ to previous monarchs demands of the loan, who requested the loan from wealthy subjects. However, Charles requested all who pay for parliamentary taxes to pay for the loan. Despite earning a massive of amount of money, “£240, 000 within ten months”. This did cause a lot of oppression to occur, leading to “five prominent men” refusing to pay. Thus, began the

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