PS1010: Study Guide for Exam 3
Winter 2015

1. Which of the following thinkers is often credited with first coming up with ideas about the modern bureaucracy?
a. Thomas Hobbes
b. John Locke
c. Max Weber
d. Alexander Hamilton
e. Benjamin Franklin

2. Bureaucracy is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Merit-based advancement
b. Hierarchy
c. Worker specialization
d. Explicit rules
e. Flexible goals

3. The value of explicit rules in bureaucratic institutions is that they:
a. Facilitate individually tailored treatment of citizens
b. Allow for flexibility
c. Encourage creativity
d. Create standardization and predictability
e. Reduce uniformity of behavior

4. A clear chain of command with all employees knowing who their supervisors are as well as whom they are responsible for is an example of a(n):
a. Issue network
b. Merit system
c. Hierarchy
d. Spoils system
e. Iron triangle

5. Bureaucracy is useful for all of the following EXCEPT tasks that:
a. Require a great deal of coordination
b. Require a great deal of planning
c. Require a great deal of expertise
d. Can be handled on an ad hoc basis
e. Require a great deal of routine work

6. The practice in which successful party candidates reward political supporters with jobs or favors is known as:
a. Patronage
b. Pandering
c. Pay-for-play
d. Lobbying
e. Nepotism

7. The civil service replaced the _________ as a method of choosing government workers.
a. Merit system
b. Hereditary inheritance 2
c. Optional service
d. Spoils system
e. Presidential appointment system

8. The goal of the Pendleton Act and the Hatch Act was to:
a. Increase presidential control over the executive branch of government
b. Reduce political influence over federal government employees
c. Increase political participation by federal government employees
d. Increase congressional control over federal government employees
e. Increase party influence over federal government employees

9. Bureaucracies are:
a. Found in both the public and private sectors
b. Useful only in democratic countries
c. Always independent from partisan control
d. Located only in governments
e. Always less efficient than markets

10. The fundamental difference between most private bureaucracies and public bureaucracies pointed out in the text is that:
a. Most private bureaucracies have the explicit goal of making money, so accountability is straightforward.
b. Most private bureaucracies are more efficient at serving the public than are public bureaucracies.
c. Employees of private bureaucracies are less concerned with the pursuit of self-interest.
d. Employees of public bureaucracies are less likely to be chosen for their competence.
e. Bureaucracy is a rare form of organization in the private sector, but it is dominant in the public sector.

11. Bureaucracy is preferable to democracy in making decisions when:
a. We can afford the time to deliberate
b. We require expertise and dispatch
c. A decision is of minor importance
d. It is essential that a decision be popular
e. A decision is too important to be left to the people

12. The bulk of the federal bureaucracy is:
a. Not covered by civil service protections
b. Concerned with foreign policy matters
c. Located in New York City
d. Composed of ethnic and racial minorities
e. Found in the executive branch

13. Groups of citizens whose interests are affected by an agency and who work to influence its policies are called:
a. Grassroots organizations
b. Clientele groups
c. Constituencies
d. Political parties
e. Public interest groups

14. The fifteen departments that make up the major subdivisions of the federal government also represent:
a. Government corporations 3
b. Government organizations
c. The president’s cabinet
d. The civil service rather than the bureaucracy
e. Independent agencies

15. Congress sets up most regulatory agencies as boards or commissions, with members having fixed terms, in order to:
a. Ensure that members do NOT stay in their positions for too long
b. Make them independent of political pressure, particularly from the president
c. Water down the effects that would be created by having a single head
d. Reduce the prestige they would achieve from being directly responsible to the president
e. Increase control of the agencies by business

16. Which of the following is NOT an example of a government corporation?
a. Amtrak
b. The U.S. Postal Service
c. The Tennessee Valley Authority
d. The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation
e. The Food and Drug Administration

17. _________ refers to bureaucrats’ authority to use their own judgment in interpreting and carrying out the laws of Congress.
a. Bureaucratic discretion
b. Administrative regulation
c. Administration imperatives
d. Bureaucratic culture
e. Implied legislation

18. The bureaucracy engages in the lawmaking process:
a. During emergencies in which Congress does not have the time to act
b. Because bureaucrats find it easy to overstep their authority as Congress ignores them
c. Because the Constitution makes provision for the bureaucracy to make laws as a check on Congress
d. Because Congress often passes very general laws that require clarification before they can be enforced
e. Only when Congress is not in session

19. The primary justification for the creation of a government corporation is to provide:
a. Infant industries with some protection
b. Revenue for the federal government
c. Competition in economic sectors currently dominated by a monopoly
d. Jobs for political cronies
e. A service that the private sector is unable to offer

20. The bureaucratic culture includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a. The development of specialization and expertise in the subject matter of the agency
b. Identification with the agency by which the worker is employed
c. Commitment to the policy issue of the agency by which the worker is employed
d. Adoption of bureaucratic behavior appropriate for the agency
e. A firm commitment to using plain, easy-to-understand language

21. According to the textbook, life within the bureaucracy is:
a. Quite partisan, but openly political moves are taboo
b. As political as life outside of it
c. Dangerous for anyone who has strong political beliefs
d. Strictly apolitical
e. Not as partisan as “civilians” might think it is

22. Agencies cultivate and serve powerful supporters because:
a. They need to be able to resist pressure from Congress and the president.
b. They have no real interest in serving the public, only in gaining power.
c. They are usually mandated by Congress to serve such interests.
d. The leaders of agencies usually are chosen from among the ranks of such supporters.
e. Presidents usually wish them to cultivate such supporters.

23. A close relationship developed between the oil industry and the agency charged with regulating drilling. This relationship is an example of:
a. Effective regulatory practice
b. Safeguarding the public interest
c. Agency capture
d. Cultivating industry cooperation with regulatory policy
e. Information gathering

24. Congress exercises control over the bureaucracy:
a. Through the actions of the Supreme Court
b. Through the actions of the majority party
c. Through the close scrutiny given to specific agencies by specific congressional subcommittees
d. More through actions of the Senate than through actions of the House of Representatives
e. More through actions of the House of Representatives than through actions of the Senate

25. The term iron triangle refers to the:
a. Phenomenon of members of interest groups, congressional committees, and bureaucratic agencies cooperating for mutual benefit
b. Practice of business, labor, and consumer groups maintaining a united front against burdensome bureaucratic regulations
c. Alliances made by different parts of the bureaucracy to prevent a presidential reorganization
d. Control that presidents, members of Congress, and judges have over the bureaucracy
e. Long-standing relationships among senators, representatives, and their constituents

26. All of the following are designed to enhance citizen influence over the bureaucracy EXCEPT:
a. The Freedom of Information Act
b. Citizen advisory councils
c. Sunshine laws
d. The Privacy Act
e. The Kenneth Meier Act

27. The primary effect of sunshine laws has been to open the:
a. Political appointment process to criticism
b. White House decision-making process to outside review
c. Daily efforts of members of Congress to their constituents
d. Federal judiciary’s proceedings to the people
e. Policymaking process to the public

28. The Privacy Act of 1974:
a. Prevents the bureaucracy from releasing any information it has about people
b. Allows people to refuse to give their Social Security number to anyone who asks for it
c. Gives citizens access to records that government agencies have on them
d. Forbids the government from gathering information on citizens
e. Requires that all information about citizens be stored in the National Archives

29. Some of the president’s most powerful weapons to control the bureaucracy include:
a. Control of the budget and his power of persuasion
b. Appointment power and the veto
c. Appointment power and his control of the budget
d. Power of persuasion and his ability to reorganize the executive branch
e. Ability to reorganize the executive branch and his power of the veto

30. According to Thomas Hobbes and John Locke, the primary function of law is to
a. Enforce moral values.
b. Create a more just society.
c. Provide security, order, and predictability in life.
d. Secure the advantages of the dominant class in society.
e. Increase equality of opportunity.

31. The legal system that is applied uniformly and based on the accumulated rulings of judges over time is called the _____ law tradition.
a. civil
b. common
c. adversarial
d. due process of
e. precedent of

32. _________ prohibit specific behavior that the government believes to be harmful to the public; violation can lead to incarceration.
a. Criminal laws
b. Regulations
c. Civil statutes
d. Procedural violations
e. Punitive laws

33. _____ law regulates relations between individuals.
a. Criminal
b. Civil
c. Administrative
d. Regulatory
e. Constitutional

34. The reason why the burden of proof in a criminal trial is greater than the burden of proof in a civil trial is because
a. Criminal trials are more expensive than civil trials.
b. Civil trials are more expensive than criminal trials.
c. Civil trials take longer than criminal trials.
d. The government is perceived as a greater threat to our liberties than are fellow citizens.
e. Lawsuits are perceived as a greater threat to our liberty than is the government

35. Which of the following is not a statutory law?
a. The Fourteenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution.
b. The 1964 Civil Rights Act.
c. The Patriot Act.
d. The Alien and Sedition Laws.
e. The “No Child Left Behind” Education Act of 2001.

36. Which of the following types of law always apply only to the executive branch of the federal government?
a. An executive order.
b. An administrative law.
c. A constitutional amendment.
d. An act of Congress.
e. A tort.

37. Laws or regulations established by bureaucratic agencies on behalf of Congress are known as _____ laws or regulations.
a. Administrative
b. Criminal
c. Regulatory
d. Statutory
e. Civil

38. "Stare decisis" is the Latin term that refers to the practice of relying on:
a. Star Chamber ruling
b. Stated decision
c. Adversarial decision
d. Ex post facto ruling
e. Precedent

39. All of the following statements concerning the U.S. court system are true except:
a. Most states have the same three-tiered court system as the federal court system.
b. Juries in appeals courts typically consist of six citizens.
c. The federal courts that have original jurisdiction in most cases are the district courts.
d. Most cases end at the trial level without an appeal.
e. Appeals courts at both levels examine questions of law, not questions of fact.

40. Which of the following is lowest court in the state court system of Michigan?
a. Michigan Court of Appeals
b. Michigan Supreme Court
c. Michigan District Court
d. Michigan Circuit Court
e. Michigan Small Claims Court

41. Which of the following is lowest court in the federal court system of the United States?
a. Federal District Court
b. Supreme Court of the United States
c. Circuit Courts of Appeal
d. Federal Maritime Court
e. Federal Trade Court 7

42. The power of the courts to determine the constitutionality of laws is called judicial _______.
a. Review.
b. Mandate.
c. Supremacy.
d. Authority.
e. Invalidation.

43. The Supreme Court has tended to use its power of judicial review
a. Against acts of Congress only about ten times.
b. Frequently against both state legislation and against acts of Congress.
c. Much more frequently against acts of Congress than against acts of state legislatures.
d. Much more frequently early in American history than in recent generations.
e. Sparingly.

44. The characteristics that help determine which court has jurisdiction over a case include all of the following EXCEPT
a. The involvement of federal statutes, treaties, or the Constitution.
b. The expressed wishes of the president.
c. The parties to the case.
d. Where the case arose.
e. The nature of the offense involved.

45. All of the following statements concerning the U.S. court system are true EXCEPT
a. Most states have the same three-tiered court system as the federal court system.
b. Juries in appeals courts typically consist of six citizens.
c. The federal courts that have original jurisdiction in most cases are the district courts.
d. Most cases end at the trial level without an appeal.
e. Appeals courts at both levels examine questions of law, not questions of fact.

46. Which of the following statements is true about the dual court system?
a. All federal judges are appointed, and all state judges are elected.
b. Most cases are heard in the state courts.
c. The state supreme courts have final say when a case includes a federal question.
d. Cases often begin in the federal system but are sent to the state courts on appeal.
e. In most states, the Supreme Court is the only court with appellate jurisdiction.

47. Which of the following statements concerning jurisdiction is false?
a. Original jurisdiction refers to the authority of a court to try a case first.
b. About half the cases in the United States are heard by federal courts.
c. Appellate jurisdiction refers to those cases a court hears on appeal.
d. Almost all the cases heard by the Supreme Court come to it on appeal.
e. The vast majority of losers in federal court cases accept the verdict without appeal.

48. The U.S. Courts of Appeals are arranged
a. In the major cities of the United States (New York, Philadelphia, Atlanta, Dallas, Chicago, Phoenix, and Los Angeles).
b. In four circuits, with one each in the north, south, east, and west.
c. In 50 courts with one in every state.
d. In 12 circuits covering the District of Columbia and geographical groupings of states.
e. Entirely within Washington, D.C. 8

49.The two main approaches to deciding cases are:
a. Judicial activism and judicial restraint
b. Judicial activism and strict constructionism
c. Judicial interpretivism and judicial restraint
d. Judicial interpretivism and stare decisis
e. Judicial interpretivism and strict constructionism

50. All of the following statements concerning appeals of lower court decisions are true EXCEPT
a. The Supreme Court overturns the lower court’s ruling in about 70 percent of the cases it hears.
b. The Supreme Court has discretion as to whether to accept an appeal.
c. Refusal to hear an appeal by the Supreme Court may mean it agrees with the lower cou3rt.
d. Refusal to hear an appeal by the Supreme Court may mean it considers the case to be frivolous.
e. Most cases in the federal courts are appealed.

51. Opponents of judicial elections believe that elections sacrifice judicial
a. Interpretivism.
b. Independence.
c. Accountability.
d. Equity.
e. Restraint.

52. The Constitution says
a. That federal judges shall be attorneys.
b. That federal judges shall be at least 30 years old.
c. Nothing about the qualifications of federal judges.
d. That federal judges shall be natural-born citizens of the United States.
e. That federal judges shall have judicial experience.

53. Senatorial courtesy refers to the
a. Practice of allowing presidential appointees to serve up to one year without Senate approval.
b. Tradition of granting senators considerable power over federal judicial appointments in their home states.
c. Common-law practice of senators not asking questions of presidential appointees to the federal courts but approving them on the basis of their record.
d. Tradition of opposing no more than two appointments per term.
e. Willingness to allow presidents to make all judicial appointments from within his political party.

54. The Supreme Court is deeply involved in politics in each of the following ways EXCEPT
a. How its members are chosen.
b. By contributing to the campaigns of congressional allies.
c. How members choose which cases to hear.
d. How members make decisions.
e. The effects of its decisions.

55. According to the text, which of the following is NOT a criterion used by presidents in choosing
Supreme Court nominees?
a. The candidate’s political ideology.
b. The candidate’s qualifications.
c. Endorsements received by national news media.
d. Rewards due to a friend or political ally.
e. Representation of groups the president believes should be included in the political process. 9

56. Which of the following statements concerning presidential appointment of judges is NOT true?
a. Presidents have always worked to shape the ideological leanings of the Supreme Court.
b. The respect given to senatorial courtesy by Republican senators seems to depend on the party of the president. c. Senatorial courtesy applies to district court judges.
d. Presidents Carter and Clinton tended to appoint ideological moderates to the federal courts.
e. Republicans have blocked court appointments by President Obama to gain leverage on other issues.

57. The first Hispanic Justice of the Supreme Court was appointed by President
a. Obama.
b. George H. W. Bush.
c. George W. Bush.
d. Clinton.
e. Reagan.

58. Which of the following statements concerning Senate confirmation of presidential Supreme Court nominees is NOT true?
a. If the minority party is not the party of the president, it has little power to influence the success of nominations.
b. The largest role in the process is played by the Judiciary Committee.
c. If the majority party is not the party of the president, the nomination can turn into an intense battle.
d. The nomination process has become much more contentious since ideology has come to play an important role in choosing nominees.
e. Interest groups can heighten the conflict over a nomination.

59. A writ of certiorari is
a. A brief filed by interested parties to encourage the court to make a certain decision.
b. A petition by the losing side in a lower court for the Supreme Court to hear an appeal.
c. An order that a defendant be brought into court to hear the charges against him or her.
d. An order by the Supreme Court to a lower court to rehear a case.
e. A ruling in a criminal appeal that overturns a conviction.

60. The Rule of Four is significant to the balance of power among Supreme Court justices because it
a. Is the rule used to determine whether a case will make the discuss list.
b. Gives some power to the minority on the Court.
c. Means that many of the cases on appeal to the Court are heard.
d. Means that less than a majority of the justices’ votes are needed for a party before the Court to be victorious. e. Shows that justices rarely agree on which cases should be heard.

61. Amicus curiae briefs are significant because
a. Interest groups aren’t allowed to file them, which in turn limits their influence.
b. They may influence whether the Supreme Court decides to hear a case.
c. Public interest groups file them more often than do economic interest groups, giving the former an advantage before the Court.
d. Only the government may file them, giving added weight to the government’s positions.
e. The Supreme Court uses them to “call up” a case.

62. Which of the following is NOT an influence on Supreme Court decision-making?
a. Direct lobbying by interest group representatives. 10
b. Public opinion.
c. The justices’ view of the Constitution and how literally it should be taken.
d. The executive branch.
e. Their relationships with each other.

63. Judicial activism has become an important political issue because
a. It shows that judges are influenced by public opinion.
b. When judges engage in judicial activism, it is an indication that they are above politics.
c. Conservatives have argued that judges are acting as legislators on issues such as same-sex marriage.
d. Only liberals have engaged in judicial activism.
e. When judges engage in judicial activism, the rights of the minority are rarely protected.

64. One reason dissenting opinions are significant to U.S. common law is
a. Justices rarely want to write them, indicating that a judge might not vote the way he or she believes in order to fall in the majority.
b. They are usually written by the chief justice.
c. They usually represent the opinions of the majority of the public, indicating that the Court regularly ignores public opinion when making its rulings.
d. They may have a lasting impact if the Court later changes its mind.
e. They provide different reasons why a justice supported the majority ruling than was written in the opinion.

65. Based on the discussion in the textbook, we can conclude that getting a case before the U.S. Supreme Court is
a. Very easy.
b. Very easy if you have the money to pay a lawyer.
c. Neither easy nor difficult.
d. Difficult.
e. Very difficult.

66. The opinion of the Supreme Court in a case is
a. The least important element of the Court’s decision.
b. The most important element of the Court’s decision.
c. Important because it tells us which side won the case.
d. Unimportant because the vote has already told us who won the case.
e. Usually unimportant, but in some instances it takes on importance.

67. According to some political observers, the different reaction of many blacks versus most whites to the shooting of Michael Brown in Ferguson, MO, can be linked to:
a. The fact that blacks are more likely to be football fans than whites.
b. The fact that whites do not trust the legal system and assumed it would find a black man guilty.
c. The fact that blacks’ experience with the legal system leads them not to trust it.
d. The fact that blacks are more trusting of the legal system and expected an innocent verdict unless the evidence was overwhelming.
e. The fact that whites expected public opinion to influence the jury more than it did.

68. Public opinion should matter in American politics because the:
a. Public pays close attention to public policy making and, therefore, deserves to be involved
b. Public is likely to engage in dangerous behavior if they are ignored
c. Constitution explicitly requires that the people be consulted in making public policy 11
d. Legitimacy of the government rests on the idea that government exists to serve the interests of the people
e. Media would attack politicians who were not attentive to the people

69. If a survey of 2,000 randomly selected people has a sampling error of +/- 10 percent showed that 40 percent of the respondents were opposed to Obamacare, what percentage of the entire population would be opposed to Obamacare?
a. 40 percent
b. anywhere from 30 to 40 percent
c. anywhere from 30 to 50 percent
d. 60 percent
e. 70 percent

70. Which of the following is NOT an argument put forth by the textbook’s authors?
a. The higher the level of education, the more tolerance people tend to demonstrate on surveys.
b. Education may be related to knowing the right answers rather than actually being more tolerant.
c. There are important cases in American history in which the educated elites were the leaders of intolerant behavior.
d. In many ways, less educated people are more tolerant than educated people.
e. Some observers argue that elites are the protectors of our democratic values.

71. Tolerance is a key democratic value because
a. It makes people feel good.
b. Most people believe in it.
c. We should love our neighbor.
d. The founders were tolerant.
e. It is a prerequisite for compromise.

72. Voter turnout for U.S. national elections is
a. The highest among industrialized nations.
b. About average among industrialized nations.
c. The lowest, or among the lowest, among industrialized nations.
d. Consistently in third place among industrialized nations.
e. None of the above.

73. According to the text, the current process of political socialization in the United States
a. Teaches us tolerance for the political values of other nations.
b. Trains us to support and obey the existing political system.
c. Teaches us to think independently and critically.
d. Is the primary function of a college education.
e. Has no legitimate function.

74. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the textbook as an agent of socialization?
a. The family.
b. The Internet.
c. Schools.
d. Peers.
e. Social groups.

75. The sharp decline in trust in government among the public in the 1960s and 1970s is used by the authors to show the effects on political socialization of
a. The family.
b. Age.
c. Schools and education.
d. Political and social events.
e. Groups.

76. Education is a source of all of the following EXCEPT
a. Socialization.
b. Apathy.
c. Democratic enlightenment.
d. Democratic engagement.
e. Tolerance.

77. Which of the following statements concerning the roles of ideology and partisanship in shaping public opinion is NOT true?
a. Much of the current division in American politics can be expressed in ideological or partisan terms.
b. Over the past few decades, the relationship between the ideological beliefs of individuals and their partisanship has grown closer.
c. Most people filter their perceptions of reality through their ideological and partisan attitudes.
d. An ideology is a set of ideas about the world, whereas partisanship is an enduring allegiance to a party.
e. Most Americans are too moderate or nonpartisan for these concepts to have much influence on them.

78. Which of the following is NOT true regarding religion?
a. Issues of concern to those who are religious generally do not involve dividing up the economic pie.
b. Jews are strongly Democratic.
c. Catholics are less conservative than are Protestants.
d. Catholics are strongly Republican.
e. Seculars tend to be more supportive of abortion rights than are fundamentalists.

79. All of the following have great influence on public policy EXCEPT
a. The young.
b. Opinion leaders.
c. The wealthy.
d. The well educated.
e. Those who vote.

80. The portion of the population selected to participate in a poll is known as the:
a. Public
b. Population
c. Deliberative group
d. Sample
e. Focus group

81. Which relationship between sample size and sampling error is correct?
a. The smaller the sample, the smaller the sampling error will be.
b. The larger the sample, the smaller the sampling error will be.
c. Sampling error and poll size are unrelated.
d. The wording of the poll questions will determine sampling error.
e. Sampling size and sampling error are related only if the poll contains sampling bias. 13

82. When politicians try to determine public opinion by listening to their supporters and friendly interest groups, they are likely to face the problem of
a. Erroneous data.
b. Sampling error.
c. Sample bias.
d. Push polling.
e. Straw men polling.

83. Unscientific polls that are often conducted by newspapers and politicians to determine who is ahead in a political race are called _______ polls.
a. Straw.
b. Interest.
c. Tracking.
d. Exit.
e. Benchmark.

84. With respect to constructing survey questions, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT
a. Respondents are often willing to give opinions on subjects about which they know little or nothing.
b. Questions should not be ambiguous.
c. Similar questions can yield surprisingly different answers.
d. The order in which questions are asked can change the results.
e. Surveys tend to underestimate the racial tolerance of the American people.

85. Sampling error refers to
a. A situation in which a sample is not representative of the larger universe being measured.
b. Mistakes made in the recording of responses in a poll.
c. The number of mistakes made by a pollster.
d. A situation in which question wording biases the results.
e. A number that indicates within what range the results of a poll are accurate.

86. We can conclude from the history of polling that
a. Polls are unreliable.
b. Polls were developed for the purpose of manipulating the public.
c. Politicians loved polls when they were introduced but now have learned to distrust polls.
d. Polls are reliable only when they are timely and have been conducted using the proper procedures.
e. Polls rarely do a good job of predicting the outcome of presidential elections.

87. Which of the following is NOT true regarding polling?
a. Sampling bias is not generally a problem that plagues pollsters.
b. A sample of 1,000 to 2,000 respondents can be representative of the entire U.S. population.
c. How the question is worded can lead a person to give significantly different answers.
d. Few differences exist between those who choose to participate in polls and those who do not.
e. A poll that showed Candidate A with 48 percent of the vote and Candidate B with
45 percent of the vote, with a sampling error of 3 percent, means that we can be 95 percent sure that Candidate A is leading.

88. If you are to be a critical watcher of polls, among the issues of concern are all of the following EXCEPT
a. Whether the poll is representative.
b. Whether the poll agrees with your position.
c. How the questions are worded. 14
d. Who sponsored the poll.
e. What the results mean.

89. Which of the following statements concerning sampling bias is NOT true?
a. Pollsters are often unaware of the problem of sampling bias.
b. The chief source of sampling bias today is nonresponse.
c. Changing patterns of telephone technology and use are part of the reason for sampling bias today.
d. Older women tend to be oversampled, whereas younger men tend to be undersampled.
e. Pollsters compensate for undersampling by the use of weighting.

90. Public opinion pollsters will often ask respondents their opinions on complex issues and public policies. Research indicates these questions are most likely used to
a. Create sampling error.
b. Ask respondents a poorly worded question.
c. Ask respondents a loaded question.
d. Ask respondents to express an opinion about something they do not know.
e. Ask respondents an ambiguous question.

91. A survey question such as “Do you support or oppose being allowed to take the Life-time Learning Credit during years in which you pay for postsecondary education with a distribution from an education IRA?” is problematic because
a. The question is loaded.
b. The question is not balanced.
c. It is likely that few people have thought about the issue.
d. The question is worded as a double negative.
e. The question is ambiguous.

92. Good survey questions meet all of the following criteria EXCEPT
a. They are unambiguous.
b. They are always short.
c. They ask about subjects that people are familiar with and that they have thought about.
d. They do not use loaded language.
e. They offer a reasonable number of choices.

93. Which of the following statements concerning exit polls is NOT true?
a. They are used by the networks to declare winners in national elections.
b. They are a form of pseudo poll.
c. They are intended to provide information for analyzing the results of an election.
d. They are taken from people who have just voted.
e. They have a mixed record as a method for declaring who has won a state in a national election.

94. Internet polls are
a. Unreliable.
b. Highly reliable.
c. Reliable if they are conducted by professional pollsters.
d. Reliable only if the right types of questions are asked.
e. More reliable than exit polls or tracking polls.

95. The authors conclude that, in general, the accuracy of election polls is
a. Quite good.
b. Fair. 15
c. Good in some years, but very poor in other years.
d. Generally poor.
e. Cannot be determined.

96. A sample that does not over-represent any portion of the population and whose responses can therefore be generalized safely to the whole is known as a _____ sample.
a. straw
b. nonprobability
c. convenience
d. quota
e. random

97. The biggest concern about question wording in polls is that the person being sampled will be unfamiliar with a subject and thereby:
a. Be unlikely to finish the polling session
b. Never participate in a poll again
c. Inflate the "don't know" category, making the results meaningless
d. Refuse to answer the question
e. Give responses based on cues picked up from the context of the interview or the question

98. _____ polls present false information, often in a hypothetical form, and ask respondents to react to it.
a. Benchmark
b. Tracking
c. Exit
d. Straw
e. Push

99. Having a random sample is important when conducting a poll because it:
a. Captures only those people who are politically engaged
b. Makes it less likely that people's answers will be based on whatever cues they can pick up from the context of the interview
c. Allows for a larger sample size
d. Makes sample bias less likely
e. Guarantees an oversampling of African Americans when trying to determine public opinion on racial issues

100. Using words like “welfare” in a survey question can be problematic because:
a. Few people know what welfare is
b. Most people are on welfare, so their answers will be biased
c. It can evoke strong, emotional responses
d. Few people have opinions about welfare
e. It is likely to make people feel uncomfortable answering the question