1
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of group cohesiveness and performance norms on group productivity?
Choose one answer. | a. When both cohesiveness and performance norms are high, productivity will be high. | Studies consistently show that the relationship between cohesiveness and productivity depends on the group's performance-related norms. If performance-related norms are high, a cohesive group will be more productive than will a less cohesive group. If cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low, productivity will be low. If cohesiveness is low and performance norms are high, productivity increases, but less than in the high-cohesiveness/high-norms situation. When cohesiveness and performance-related norms are both low, productivity tends to fall into the low-to-moderate range. | | b. If cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low, productivity will be high. | | | c. When cohesiveness is low and performance norms are also low, productivity will be high. | | | d. The productivity of the group is affected by the performance norms but not by the cohesiveness of the group. | | | e. If cohesiveness is low and performance norms are high, productivity will be low. | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 2
Marks: 1
________ is defined as a phenomenon in which the norm for consensus overrides the realistic appraisal of alternative courses of action.
Choose one answer. | a. Groupthink | Groupthink is defined as a phenomenon in which the norm for consensus overrides the realistic appraisal of alternative courses of action. | | b. Cyber loafing | | | c. Groupshift | | | d. Social loafing | | | e. In-group favoritism | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 3
Marks: 1
Emotional intelligence (EI) is critical to effective leadership because one of its core components is ________ which reflects the consideration that leaders must be able to express.
Choose one answer. | a. conscientiousness | | | b. perfectionism | | | c. introversion | | | d. empathy | A core component of EI is empathy. Empathetic leaders can sense others' needs, listen to what followers say (and don't say), and read the reactions of others. The caring part of empathy, especially for the people with whom you work, is what inspires people to stay with a leader when the going gets rough. | | e. optimism | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 4
Marks: 1
Which of the following is a differentiating factor between power and leadership?
Choose one answer. | a. goal compatibility | | | b. influence | | | c. control | Power does not require goal compatibility, merely dependence. Leadership, on the other hand, requires some congruence between the goals of the leader and those being led. | | d. negative affect | | | e. ability | |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 5
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is true with regard to communication?
Choose one answer. | a. Perfect communication is not dependent on a channel and its richness. | | | b. Communication involves the transfer and understanding of meaning. | Communication must include both the transfer and the understanding of meaning. Perfect communication, if it existed, would occur when a thought or idea was transmitted so the receiver perceived exactly the same mental picture as the sender. Communication serves four major functions within a group or organization: control, motivation, emotional expression, and information. | | c. Perfect communication results in dissimilar mental models. | | | d. Communication involves the mere imparting of meaning to another person or group. | | | e. Communication cannot be used to motivate and control employees in an organization. | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 6
Marks: 1
Leadership is best defined as ________.
Choose one answer. | a. the ability to reduce the dependence of team members on each other | | | b. the ability to influence a group toward the achievement of a vision or set of goals | Leadership can be defined as the ability to influence a group toward the achievement of a vision or set of goals. Leaders can emerge from within a group as well as by formal appointment. | | c. the ability to merely project one's abilities in the lack of actual accomplishments | | | d. the ability to use factors like training and experience to reduce dependence on formal leadership | | | e. the ability to induce the team members to focus on individual goals rather than collective goals | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 7
Marks: 1
Which of the following differentiates between high self-monitors and low self-monitors?
Choose one answer. | a. High self-monitors are more likely to use defensive impression management techniques, while low self-monitors are more likely to use self-focused impression management techniques. | | | b. High self-monitors have an external locus of control as they attribute successes or failures to luck and fate, while low self-monitors have an internal locus of control and believe that they control the outcomes. | Low self-monitors tend to present images of themselves that are consistent with their personalities, regardless of the beneficial or detrimental effects for them. In contrast, high self-monitors are good at reading situations and molding their appearances and behavior to fit each situation. | | c. High self-monitors tend to mold their appearances and behavior to fit each situation, while low self-monitors tend to present images of themselves that are consistent with their personalities. | | | d. High self-monitors are commonly seen in collectivist cultures, while low self-monitors are commonly seen in individualist cultures. | | | e. High self-monitors prefer to avoid using power and politics at the workplace, while low self-monitors engage in a lot of politicking. | |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 8
Marks: 1
With reference to the team effectiveness model, which of the following is one of the key components of an effective team, included under the category of contextual factors?
Choose one answer. | a. climate of trust | | | b. social loafing | | | c. common purpose | | | d. specific goals | | | e. team efficacy | Climate of trust is a contextual factor that affects the effectiveness of teams. Team efficacy, social loafing, specific goals, and common purpose are process-related factors that affect the effectiveness of the team. |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 9
Marks: 1
Which of the following accurately differentiates between work groups and work teams?
Choose one answer. | a. Work teams represent the mere accumulation of individual efforts, while work groups generate a positive synergy within the organization. | | | b. Work groups are used by top-management employees, while work teams are used by lower-level workers. | | | c. Work teams generate a potential for an organization to generate greater outputs with no increase in inputs, while work groups cannot perform this function. | | | d. Work groups are used for functions relating to areas of the external environment, while work teams are exclusively used for departmental problems and issues. | | | e. Work groups involve members who have complementary skills, while work teams use employees who have random and varied skills. | A work team generates positive synergy through coordinated effort. The individual efforts result in a level of performance greater than the sum of those individual inputs. Work teams aim at the goal of collective performance, apply complementary skills, and promote individual and mutual accountability for group results. |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 10
Marks: 1
Which of the following is true with regard to bases of power?
Choose one answer. | a. Coercive power involves an identification with and imitation of the person in power. | Of the three bases of formal power (coercive, reward, legitimate) and two bases of personal power (expert, referent), research suggests pretty clearly that the personal sources of power are most effective. | | b. The personal sources of power are most effective for increasing employee performance and satisfaction. | | | c. Legitimate power is used by companies when they hire celebrities to promote their products. | | | d. Expert and referent power are the two major types of formal power. | | | e. Reward power is the most common and broad type of power seen in operation in organizations. | |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 11
Marks: 1
Which of the following represents the informal communication network in an organization?
Choose one answer. | a. wheel network | | | b. grapevine | The informal communication network in a group or organization is called the grapevine. Although the grapevine may be informal, it's still an important source of information. | | c. chain network | | | d. feedback loop | | | e. all-channel network | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 12
Marks: 1
The two dimensions of leadership behavior identified in the University of Michigan studies are ________.
Choose one answer. | a. employee-oriented leaders and production-oriented leaders | Leadership studies at the University of Michigan's Survey Research Center located behavioral characteristics of leaders that appeared related to performance effectiveness: the employee-oriented leader and the production-oriented leader. The employee-oriented leader emphasized interpersonal relationships by taking a personal interest in the needs of employees and accepting individual differences among them; the production-oriented leader emphasized the technical or task aspects of the job concern focused on accomplishing the group's tasks. | | b. transformational leaders and authentic leaders | | | c. initiation and completion | | | d. absolute leadership and contingency leadership | | | e. initiating structure and consideration | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 13
Marks: 1
Fiedler's contingency leadership model assumes that ________.
Choose one answer. | a. an individual's leadership style must be task oriented to be effective | | | b. an individual's leadership style is essentially fixed | Fiedler assumes an individual's leadership style is fixed. This means if a situation requires a task-oriented leader, and the person in the leadership position is relationship oriented, either the situation has to be modified or the leader has to be replaced to achieve optimal effectiveness. | | c. an individual's leadership is primarily determined by the the features of the followers | | | d. an individual is constantly striving to develop a more productive style | | | e. an individual's leadership style can be altered much like his/her personality traits | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 14
Marks: 1
Communication that flows from one level of a group or organization to a lower level is called ________.
Choose one answer. | a. downward communication | Communication that flows from one level of a group or organization to a lower level is downward communication. Group leaders and managers use it to assign goals, provide job instructions, explain policies and procedures, point out problems that need attention, and offer feedback about performance. | | b. upward communication | | | c. intrapersonal communication | | | d. lateral communication | | | e. horizontal communication | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 15
Marks: 1
Trait theories of leadership focus on ________.
Choose one answer. | a. the special relationship that leaders establish with a small group of their followers | | | b. the personal qualities and characteristics that differentiate leaders from nonleaders | Trait theories of leadership focus on personal qualities and characteristics. The search for personality, social, physical, or intellectual attributes that differentiate leaders from nonleaders goes back to the earliest stages of leadership research. | | c. the way the leader makes decisions | | | d. the extent to which followers are willing and able to accomplish a specific task | | | e. the match between the leader's style and the degree to which the situation gives the leader control | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 16
Marks: 1
Which of the following is true with regard to the social identity theory?
Choose one answer. | a. It proposes that people have emotional reactions to the failure or success of their group because their self-esteem is tied into the group's performance. | Social identity theory proposes that people have emotional reactions to the failure or success of their group because their self-esteem gets tied into the group's performance. | | b. It proposes that members of an in-group are viewed as being homogenous, while members of an out-group are seen as being heterogeneous. | | | c. It proposes that people develop only one social identity in childhood that becomes more defined and concrete in the course of their lives. | | | d. It proposes that members take personal pride in accomplishments but dissociate from the group in the event of any offenses or failures. | | | e. It proposes that social identities can never be detrimental as they have no effect on how members of an in-group view members of an out-group. | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 17
Marks: 1
Which of the following forms of communication is characterized by the use of only body movements, intonations, facial expressions, and physical distance to communicate?
Choose one answer. | a. downward communication | | | b. nonverbal communication | Nonverbal communication deals with body movements, the intonations or emphasis we give to words, facial expressions, and the physical distance between the sender and receiver. Downward, upward, and lateral communication may or may not be nonverbal. | | c. written communication | | | d. lateral communication | | | e. upward communication | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 18
Marks: 1
Which of the following is true with regard to the five-stage group development model?
Choose one answer. | a. A positive social focus may aid a group in reaching the performing stage more rapidly. | Many interpreters of the five-stage model have assumed a group becomes more effective as it progresses through the first four stages. It has been noted that groups proceed through the stages of group development at different rates. Those with a strong sense of purpose and strategy rapidly achieve high performance and improve over time, whereas those with less sense of purpose actually see their performance worsen over time. Similarly, groups that begin with a positive social focus appear to achieve the performing stage more rapidly. | | b. The model assumes that employees are functioning at their most effective level from the first stage. | | | c. All permanent groups pass through the five stages of this model of group development successively. | | | d. For temporary work teams, the performing stage is the last stage of group development. | | | e. Groups proceed through the stages of group development in similar speed and timelines. | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 19
Marks: 1
Which of the following is desirable with regard to persuasive communication?
Choose one answer. | a. manipulating information so the receiver will see it more favorably | It is important to match the persuasive message to the type of processing your audience is likely to use. When the audience is not especially interested in a persuasive message topic, when they are poorly informed, when they are low in need for cognition, and when information is transmitted through relatively lean channels, they'll be more likely to use automatic processing. In these cases, use messages that are more emotion-laden and associate positive images with your preferred outcome. On the other hand, when the audience is interested in a topic, when they are high in need for cognition, or when the information is transmitted through rich channels, then it is a better idea to focus on rational arguments and evidence to make your case. | | b. increasing the degree of noise in the communication process | | | c. matching the type of message with the type of audience | | | d. engaging in selective perception | | | e. processing a lot of information even if it exceeds our capacity | |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 20
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is true regarding team composition?
Choose one answer. | a. A team's performance is merely the summation of its individual members' abilities. | Teams have different needs, and members should be selected to ensure all the various roles are filled. Successful work teams have selected people to play all these roles based on their skills and preferences. On many teams, individuals will play multiple roles. | | b. Agreeableness is the only personality dimension that aids the ability to work in groups. | | | c. A high-ability team will function well irrespective of the deficits in the abilities of the leader. | | | d. High-ability teams find it hard to adapt to changing situations. | | | e. In successful teams, members should be selected to ensure all the various roles are filled. | |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 21
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is true with regard to the effectiveness of tactics?
Choose one answer. | a. Individuals from individualistic cultures are typically more likely to use coalition and other hard power tactics. | | | b. All tactics are equally effective with regard to upward influence. | | | c. The combination of a soft tactic with reasonable persuasion is more effective than a combination of two hard tactics. | | | d. Individuals from collectivist cultures are typically more likely to use soft tactics that reflect personal power. | A single soft tactic is more effective than a single hard tactic, and combining two soft tactics or a soft tactic and rational persuasion is more effective than any single tactic or combination of hard tactics. | | e. Soft tactics are less effective than hard tactics when used individually. | |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 22
Marks: 1
________ illustrates a process loss from using teams.
Choose one answer. | a. Profit-sharing | | | b. Role conflict | | | c. Social loafing | In the case of a team, when each member's contribution is not clearly visible, individuals tend to decrease their effort. This is known as social loafing. Social loafing illustrates a process loss from using teams. | | d. Multitasking | | | e. Organizational demography | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 23
Marks: 1
Which of the following terms indicates the tendency of individuals to spend less effort when working collectively?
Choose one answer. | a. collective efficacy | | | b. groupshift | | | c. social loafing | Social loafing is the tendency for individuals to expend less effort when working in a group than when working individually. Group performance increases with group size, but the addition of new members has diminishing returns on productivity. | | d. social facilitation | | | e. groupthink | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 24
Marks: 1
________ is a condition in which information inflow exceeds an individual's processing capacity.
Choose one answer. | a. Information scarcity | | | b. Information richness | | | c. Information inequity | | | d. Information overload | Information overload is a condition in which information inflow exceeds an individual's processing capacity. | | e. Information architecture | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 25
Marks: 1
Which of the following differentiates between formal and informal groups?
Choose one answer. | a. Formal groups pursue the goal of social contact, while informal groups have definite organizational goals to attain. | | | b. The impact of formal groups on organizational performance is lesser than that of informal groups. | | | c. Formal groups are typically smaller in size when compared to informal groups. | | | d. The timeline of reference for formal groups is greater than that for informal groups. | | | e. Formal groups involve clearly defined tasks and roles, while informal groups are neither formally structured nor organizationally determined. | A formal group is one that is defined by the organization's structure, with designated work assignments establishing tasks. An informal group is neither formally structured nor organizationally determined |
1
Marks: 1
________ refers to a dimension of intellectual ability which involves identifying a logical sequence in a problem and using this logical sequence to solve the problem.
Choose one answer. | a. Spatial visualization | | | b. Visual perception | | | c. Visual prosthesis | | | d. Inductive reasoning | Inductive reasoning refers to the ability to identify a logical sequence and then using this logical sequence to solve the problem. | | e. Form perception | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 2
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is true regarding sources of moods and emotions?
Choose one answer. | a. Physical and informal activities increase positive mood. | Research suggests activities that are physical such as skiing or hiking with friends, informal such as going to a party, or epicurean like eating with others are more strongly associated with increases in positive mood than events that are formal or sedentary. | | b. Weather has a controlling effect on moods. | | | c. Mounting levels of stress at work create positive emotions. | | | d. Intensity of negative emotions increases with age. | | | e. Reduced sleep makes a person more alert during waking hours. | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 3
Marks: 1
A situation in which an employee expresses organizationally desired emotions during interpersonal transactions at work is known as ________.
Choose one answer. | a. self-concordance | | | b. negative affect | | | c. cognitive deviance | | | d. emotional labor | Emotional labor is defined as a situation in which an employee expresses organizationally desired emotions during interpersonal transactions at work, meaning that his job demands a certain set of emotional responses, regardless of true feelings. | | e. emotional liability | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 4
Marks: 1
________ diversity refers to diversity in observable attributes such as race, ethnicity, sex, and age.
Choose one answer. | a. Conjunctive | | | b. Surface-level | Surface-level diversity refers to differences in easily perceived characteristics, such as gender, race, ethnicity, age, or disability, that do not necessarily reflect the ways people think or feel but that may activate certain stereotypes. | | c. Additive | | | d. Disjunctive | | | e. Psychographic | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 5
Marks: 1
The theory of cognitive dissonance was proposed by ________.
Choose one answer. | a. Ivan Petrovich Pavlov | | | b. Geert Hofstede | | | c. Abraham Maslow | | | d. Daryl Bem | | | e. Leon Festinger | In the 1960s, Leon Festinger argued that attitudes follow behavior. Festinger proposed that cases of attitude following behavior illustrate the effects of cognitive dissonance, any incompatibility an individual might perceive between two or more attitudes or between behavior and attitudes. |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 6
Marks: 1
The ability to understand, communicate with, motivate, and support other people, both individually and in groups, may be defined as ________ .
Choose one answer. | a. human skills | The ability to understand, communicate with, motivate, and support other people, both individually and in groups, may be defined as human skills. Managers get things done through other people, and it is crucial for them to have good human skills. | | b. technical skills | | | c. conceptual skills | | | d. cognitive skills | | | e. analytical skills | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 7
Marks: 1
________ refers to the tendency of people to associate two events when in reality there is no connection.
Choose one answer. | a. Distinction bias | | | b. Affect intensity | | | c. Omission bias | | | d. Focusing effect | | | e. Illusory correlation | Illusory correlation is the tendency of people to associate two events that in reality have no connection. |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 8
Marks: 1
Which of the following famous philosophers identified six emotions which he called "simple and primitive passions" and argued that all the others are composed of some of these six or are species of them?
Choose one answer. | a. John Locke | | | b. David Hume | | | c. René Descartes | | | d. Paul Churchland | René Descartes, often called the founder of modern philosophy, identified six "simple and primitive passions." These consisted of wonder, love, hatred, desire, joy, and sadness. He argued that all the others are composed of some of these six or are species of them. | | e. George Berkeley | |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 9
Marks: 1
Which of the following is a type of response to dissatisfaction that is constructive and passive?
Choose one answer. | a. neglect | | | b. reflect | | | c. loyalty | Loyalty is considered a passive constructive response to dissatisfaction. | | d. exit | | | e. voice | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 10
Marks: 1
Which of the following is a generic term that covers a broad range of feelings that people experience?
Choose one answer. | a. knowledge | | | b. attention | | | c. affect | Affect is a generic term that covers a broad range of feelings people experience, including both emotions and moods. Emotions are intense feelings directed at someone or something. Moods are less intense feelings than emotions and often, though not always, lack a contextual stimulus. | | d. insight | | | e. cognition | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 11
Marks: 1
________ refers to feelings that tend to be less intense than emotions and that lack a contextual stimulus.
Choose one answer. | a. Cognition | | | b. Thought | | | c. Affect | | | d. Reaction | | | e. Mood | Moods are feelings that tend to be less intense than emotions and that lack a contextual stimulus. Moods are not usually directed at a person or an event. But emotions can turn into moods when one loses focus on the event or object that started the feeling. |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 12
Marks: 1
The physical ability that allows a body to maintain equilibrium despite opposing forces is known as ________.
Choose one answer. | a. body coordination | | | b. extent flexibility | | | c. stamina | | | d. static strength | | | e. balance | Balance is the ability to maintain equilibrium despite forces pulling off balance. |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 13
Marks: 1
In a workplace, ________ involves overt threats or bullying directed at members of specific groups of employees.
Choose one answer. | a. optimism bias | | | b. intimidation | In a workplace, intimidation involves overt threats or bullying directed at members of specific groups of employees. | | c. inequity aversion | | | d. risk aversion | | | e. ambiguity aversion | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 14
Marks: 1
According to Mintzberg's classification of managerial roles, the role of a(n) ________ is to transmit information received from outsiders or from other employees to members of the organization.
Choose one answer. | a. entrepreneur | | | b. spokesperson | According to Mintzberg's classification of managerial roles, the role of a disseminator is to transmit information received from outsiders or from other employees to members of the organization. | | c. resource allocator | | | d. leader | | | e. disseminator | |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 15
Marks: 1
________ diversity refers to diversity with respect to attributes that are less easy to observe initially but that can be inferred after more direct experience.
Choose one answer. | a. Demographic | | | b. Conjunctive | | | c. Deep-level | As people get to know one another, they become less concerned about demographic differences if they see themselves as sharing more important characteristics, such as personality and values, that represent deep-level diversity. | | d. Additive | | | e. Surface-level | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 16
Marks: 1
________ refers to the heterogeneity of organizations in terms of gender, age, race, ethnicity, sexual orientation, and inclusion of other diverse groups.
Choose one answer. | a. Workforce associability | | | b. Operational homogeneity | | | c. Organizational congruity | | | d. Cultural similarity | | | e. Workforce diversity | Workforce diversity refers to the heterogeneity of organizations in terms of gender, age, race, ethnicity, sexual orientation, and inclusion of other diverse groups. |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 17
Marks: 1
________ refers to evaluative statements or judgments concerning objects, people, or events.
Choose one answer. | a. Behavior | | | b. Attitude | Attitudes are evaluative statements, either favorable or unfavorable, about objects, people, or events. They reflect how one feels about something. | | c. Appearance | | | d. Performance | | | e. Demeanor | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 18
Marks: 1
Which of the following best defines organizational behavior?
Choose one answer. | a. It involves the study of what people do in a company and how it affects the company's output. | Organizational behavior refers to the study of what people do in an organization and how their behavior affects the organization's performance. | | b. It is a field which is not influenced by factors in the external world. | | | c. It involves developing exclusively the knowledge of managers and senior -level employees. | | | d. It involves the study of groups of people coming together for collective bargaining. | | | e. It involves analyzing different people in an industry with independent profit-centered motives. | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 19
Marks: 1
Which of the following functions do managers undertake as part of planning functions?
Choose one answer. | a. implementing strategies for achieving goals | The planning function encompasses defining an organization's goals, establishing an overall strategy for achieving those goals, and developing a comprehensive set of plans to integrate and coordinate activities. | | b. defining an organization's goals | | | c. accomplishing goals of a project | | | d. executing plans to integrate activities | | | e. employing strategies to coordinate tasks | |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 20
Marks: 1
________ refers to a positive feeling about one's job resulting from an evaluation of its characteristics.
Choose one answer. | a. Constructive dismissal | | | b. Job design | | | c. Positivity offset | | | d. Job satisfaction | When people speak of employee attitudes, they usually mean job satisfaction, which describes a positive feeling about a job, resulting from an evaluation of its characteristics. A person with a high level of job satisfaction holds positive feelings about his or her job, while a person with a low level holds negative feelings. | | e. Picketing | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 21
Marks: 1
According to Fred Luthans and his associates, managers which are involved in networking activities are most likely to undertake which of the following?
Choose one answer. | a. planning | | | b. controlling | | | c. politicking | Fred Luthans and his associates studied more than 450 managers who were all engaged in four managerial activities of traditional management, communication,human resource management, and networking. Networking activities are comprised of socializing, politicking, and interacting with outsiders. | | d. staffing | | | e. decision making | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 22
Marks: 1
Which of the following is a characteristic of emotions?
Choose one answer. | a. Emotions last for a longer time period than moods. | | | b. Emotions lack a contextual stimulus. | | | c. Emotions involve less intense feelings than moods. | | | d. Emotions are reactions to a person or event. | Emotions are intense feelings that are directed at someone or something. Emotions are reactions to a person. For instance, seeing a friend at work may make one feel glad or an event dealing with a rude client may make one feel angry. | | e. Emotions are never action-oriented in nature. | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 23
Marks: 1
________ are defined as people who oversee the activities of others and who are responsible for attaining goals in organizations.
Choose one answer. | a. Managers | Managers are defined as people who oversee the activities of others and who are responsible for attaining goals in organizations. They make decisions, allocate resources, and get work done by other people. | | b. Interns | | | c. Assistants | | | d. Apprentices | | | e. Secretaries | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 24
Marks: 1
________, which may occur intentionally or unintentionally, refers to keeping certain people in a work place away from job opportunities, social events, discussions, or informal mentoring.
Choose one answer. | a. Mockery | | | b. Bullying | | | c. Stalking | | | d. Exclusion | Exclusion of certain people from job opportunities, social events, discussions, or informal mentoring may occur unintentionally. For instance, many women in finance claim they are assigned to marginal job roles or are given light workloads that do not lead to promotion. | | e. Ragging | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 25
Marks: 1
Organizational commitment is defined as ________.
Choose one answer. | a. the state of discord caused by opposition of values between people working together | | | b. the employee's degree of disagreement or differential opinions about organizational practices | | | c. the degree to which employees believe their work impacts their organization significantly | | | d. the degree to which employees identify with the organization they work for and its goals | The degree to which an employee identifies with a particular organization and its goals and wishes to maintain membership in the organization is known as organizational commitment. | | e. the degree to which an employee's sense of cognitive dissonance is related to their job | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
1
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is true regarding sources of moods and emotions?
Choose one answer. | a. Physical and informal activities increase positive mood. | Research suggests activities that are physical such as skiing or hiking with friends, informal such as going to a party, or epicurean like eating with others are more strongly associated with increases in positive mood than events that are formal or sedentary. | | b. Reduced sleep makes a person more alert during waking hours. | | | c. Weather has a controlling effect on moods. | | | d. Intensity of negative emotions increases with age. | | | e. Mounting levels of stress at work create positive emotions. | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 2
Marks: 1
________ is the process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment.
Choose one answer. | a. Impression | | | b. Sensation | | | c. Perception | Perception is defined as a process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment. People's behavior is based on their perception of what reality is, and not on reality itself. What a person perceives can be substantially different from objective reality. | | d. Attribution | | | e. Apprehension | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 3
Marks: 1
Milton Rokeach created the Rokeach Value Survey (RVS) which consisted of two sets of values, namely ________ values and ________ values.
Choose one answer. | a. instrumental; terminal | Milton Rokeach created the Rokeach Value Survey (RVS). It consists of two sets of values, namely, instrumental and terminal values. | | b. fluid; stable | | | c. flexible; enduring | | | d. unique; general | | | e. flexible; essential | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 4
Marks: 1
According to Douglas McGregor's Theory Y, a manager assumes that employees ________.
Choose one answer. | a. attempt to avoid work | | | b. need to be directed | | | c. need to be micromanaged | | | d. learn to accept responsibility | According to Theory Y, managers assume employees can view work as being as natural as rest or play, and therefore the average person can learn to accept, and even seek, responsibility. | | e. prefer to be controlled | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 5
Marks: 1
One of the methods of job enrichment is to expand jobs vertically. This method involves modifying the ________ dimension of the job.
Choose one answer. | a. task identity | | | b. feedback | | | c. skill variety | | | d. task significance | Expanding jobs vertically involves gives employees responsibilities and control formerly reserved for management.Thus it modifies the autonomy dimension of the job. | | e. autonomy | |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 6
Marks: 1
________ refers to the evaluation of a person's characteristics that is affected by comparisons with other people recently encountered who rank higher or lower on the same characteristics.
Choose one answer. | a. Anchoring bias | | | b. Stereotyping | | | c. Halo effect | | | d. Confirmation bias | | | e. Contrast effect | Contrast effect is the evaluation of a person's characteristics that is affected by comparisons with other people recently encountered who rank higher or lower on the same characteristics. |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 7
Marks: 1
The ability to understand, communicate with, motivate, and support other people, both individually and in groups, may be defined as ________ .
Choose one answer. | a. analytical skills | | | b. technical skills | | | c. human skills | The ability to understand, communicate with, motivate, and support other people, both individually and in groups, may be defined as human skills. Managers get things done through other people, and it is crucial for them to have good human skills. | | d. conceptual skills | | | e. cognitive skills | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 8
Marks: 1
________ is defined as the processes that account for an individual's intensity, direction, and persistence of effort toward attaining a goal.
Choose one answer. | a. Learning | | | b. Management | | | c. Leadership | | | d. Emotional labor | | | e. Motivation | Motivation is defined as the processes that account for an individual's intensity, direction, and persistence of effort toward attaining a goal. |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 9
Marks: 1
________ are defined as people who oversee the activities of others and who are responsible for attaining goals in organizations.
Choose one answer. | a. Assistants | | | b. Interns | | | c. Secretaries | | | d. Apprentices | | | e. Managers | Managers are defined as people who oversee the activities of others and who are responsible for attaining goals in organizations. They make decisions, allocate resources, and get work done by other people. |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 10
Marks: 1
________ explains the ways in which we judge people differently, depending on the meaning we assign to a given behavior.
Choose one answer. | a. Equity theory | | | b. Attachment theory | | | c. Object relations theory | | | d. Attribution theory | Attribution theory suggests that when we observe an individual's behavior, we attempt to determine whether it was internally or externally caused. Determination however, depends largely on three factors, namely, distinctiveness, consensus, and consistency. | | e. Cultural schema theory | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 11
Marks: 1
In equity theory, individuals assess the ________.
Choose one answer. | a. quantity-quality trade-off | | | b. efficiency-effectiveness trade-off | | | c. cost-benefit ratio | | | d. outcome-input ratio | Equity theory states that individuals compare their job inputs and outcomes with those of others and then respond to eliminate any inequities. Employees perceive what they get from a job situation (salary levels, raises, recognition) in relationship to what they put into it (effort, experience, education, competence) and then compare their outcome-input ratio with that of relevant others. | | e. quality of outcome | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 12
Marks: 1
Which of the following personality traits indicates the degree to which a person is unemotional and pragmatic and believes that ends can justify means?
Choose one answer. | a. agreeableness | | | b. extraversion | | | c. machiavellianism | Machiavellianism refers to the degree to which an individual is pragmatic, maintains emotional distance, and believes that ends can justify means. | | d. narcissism | | | e. self-concordance | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 13
Marks: 1
The periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another with similar skill requirements at the same organizational level is defined as ________.
Choose one answer. | a. job analysis | | | b. job rotation | The periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another with similar skill requirements at the same organizational level is called job rotation. | | c. job enlargement | | | d. job enrichment | | | e. job sharing | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 14
Marks: 1
Which of the following best defines organizational behavior?
Choose one answer. | a. It involves analyzing different people in an industry with independent profit-centered motives. | | | b. It involves the study of groups of people coming together for collective bargaining. | | | c. It is a field which is not influenced by factors in the external world. | | | d. It involves developing exclusively the knowledge of managers and senior -level employees. | | | e. It involves the study of what people do in a company and how it affects the company's output. | Organizational behavior refers to the study of what people do in an organization and how their behavior affects the organization's performance. |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 15
Marks: 1
Which of the following is the distinct characteristic of participative management programs?
Choose one answer. | a. joint decision making | The distinct characteristic common to all participative management programs is joint decision making, in which subordinates share a significant degree of decision-making power with their immediate superiors. | | b. autocratic decision making | | | c. representative participation | | | d. performance norms | | | e. establishment of work councils | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 16
Marks: 1
With reference to the Hofstede's framework, a class or caste system that discourages upward mobility is more likely to exist in a nation that scores ________.
Choose one answer. | a. high on long-term orientation | | | b. low on masculinity | Power distance describes the degree to which people in a country accept that power in institutions and organizations is distributed unequally. A high rating on power distance means that large inequalities of power and wealth exist and are tolerated in the culture, as in a class or caste system that discourages upward mobility. | | c. high on individualism | | | d. low on uncertainty avoidance | | | e. high on power distance | |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 17
Marks: 1
Which of the following terms describes basic convictions that "a specific mode of conduct or end-state of existence is personally or socially preferable to an opposite mode of conduct"?
Choose one answer. | a. emotions | | | b. feelings | | | c. traditions | | | d. attitudes | Values represent basic convictions that a specific mode of conduct or end-state of existence is personally or socially preferable to an opposite or converse mode of conduct or end-state of existence. Values contain a judgmental element in that they carry an individual's ideas as to what is right, good, or desirable. | | e. values | |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 18
Marks: 1
The ________ theory is also known as the social cognitive theory or the social learning theory.
Choose one answer. | a. reinforcement | The self-efficacy theory is also known as the social cognitive theory or the social learning theory. | | b. two-factor | | | c. self-efficacy | | | d. goal-setting | | | e. self-determination | |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 19
Marks: 1
Which of the following is the most common means of measuring personality?
Choose one answer. | a. self-report surveys | | | b. stress interviews | The most common means of measuring personality is through self-report surveys. In such surveys, individuals evaluate themselves on a series of factors, such as "I worry a lot about the future." | | c. in-depth interviews | | | d. career portfolio | | | e. reference interviews | |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 20
Marks: 1
The ________ is a personality assessment model that taps basic dimensions which encompass most of the significant variation in human personality, namely extraversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, emotional stability, and openness to experience.
Choose one answer. | a. Birkman Method | | | b. Forté Profile | | | c. Keirsey Temperament Sorter | | | d. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator | | | e. Big Five Model | The Big Five Model is a personality assessment model that taps basic dimensions which encompass most of the significant variations in human personality, namely extraversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, emotional stability, and openness to experience. |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 21
Marks: 1
A situation in which an employee expresses organizationally desired emotions during interpersonal transactions at work is known as ________.
Choose one answer. | a. cognitive deviance | | | b. emotional labor | Emotional labor is defined as a situation in which an employee expresses organizationally desired emotions during interpersonal transactions at work, meaning that his job demands a certain set of emotional responses, regardless of true feelings. | | c. negative affect | | | d. self-concordance | | | e. emotional liability | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 22
Marks: 1
Judging someone on the basis of one's perception of the group to which the person belongs is called ________.
Choose one answer. | a. confirmation bias | | | b. self-serving bias | | | c. bandwagon effect | | | d. stereotyping | Stereotyping is defined as judging someone on the basis of one's perception of the group to which that person belongs. Relying on this type of generalization helps a person make decisions quickly. | | e. framing effect | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 23
Marks: 1
Which of the following is a decision-making model that describes how individuals should behave in order to maximize some outcome?
Choose one answer. | a. integrative decision-making model | | | b. associative decision-making model | | | c. flexible decision-making model | | | d. rational decision-making model | Rational decision-making model refers to a decision-making model that describes how individuals should behave in order to maximize some outcome. It relies on a number of assumptions, including that the decision maker has complete information, is able to identify all the relevant options in an unbiased manner, and chooses the option with the highest utility. | | e. distributive decision-making model | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 24
Marks: 1
________ are predesigned packages or modules of benefits, each of which meets the needs of a specific group of employees.
Choose one answer. | a. Merit-based plans | | | b. Employee stock ownership plans | | | c. Flextime plans | | | d. Profit sharing plans | | | e. Modular plans | The three most popular types of benefits plans are modular plans, core-plus options, and flexible spending accounts. Modular plans are predesigned packages or modules of benefits, each of which meets the needs of a specific group of employees. |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 25
Marks: 1
Which of the following terms refers to a situation in which a person inaccurately perceives a second person, and the resulting expectations cause the second person to behave in ways consistent with the original perception?
Choose one answer. | a. contrast effect | | | b. bandwagon effect | | | c. self-fulfilling prophecy | A situation in which a person inaccurately perceives a second person, and the resulting expectations cause the second person to behave in ways consistent with the original perception is known as a self-fulfilling prophecy. | | d. attribution theory | | | e. confirmation bias | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 26
Marks: 1
What is an advantage of bonuses over merit-based pay plan?
Choose one answer. | a. Employees don't view bonuses as a part of their salary. | | | b. Bonuses are paid based on a formula. | | | c. Employees are rewarded for recent performance. | | | d. Bonuses improve flexibility of the workforce. | | | e. Bonuses improve performance of the group as a whole. | The incentive effects of performance bonuses are generally higher than those of merit pay because, rather than paying for performance years ago (that was rolled into base pay), bonuses reward recent performance. |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 27
Marks: 1
According to Gordon Allport, ________ is defined as the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determine his unique adjustments to his environment.
Choose one answer. | a. personality | The definition of personality we most frequently use was produced by Gordon Allport nearly 70 years ago. He said personality is "the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determine his unique adjustments to his environment." | | b. cognitive dissonance | | | c. genealogy | | | d. descent | | | e. heredity | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 28
Marks: 1
________ argues that people learn to behave to get something they want or to avoid something they don't want.
Choose one answer. | a. McClelland's theory of needs | | | b. Operant conditioning theory | | | c. Theory X | | | d. Social cognitive theory | Operant conditioning theory argues that people learn to behave to get something they want or to avoid something they don't want. Unlike reflexive or unlearned behavior, operant behavior is influenced by the reinforcement or lack of reinforcement brought about by its consequences. | | e. Theory Y | |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 29
Marks: 1
________, which may occur intentionally or unintentionally, refers to keeping certain people in a work place away from job opportunities, social events, discussions, or informal mentoring.
Choose one answer. | a. Mockery | | | b. Ragging | | | c. Exclusion | | | d. Stalking | | | e. Bullying | Exclusion of certain people from job opportunities, social events, discussions, or informal mentoring may occur unintentionally. For instance, many women in finance claim they are assigned to marginal job roles or are given light workloads that do not lead to promotion. |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 30
Marks: 1
Which of the following terms refers to factors such as one's biological, physiological, and inherent psychological makeup determined at conception?
Choose one answer. | a. self-concordance | | | b. social identity | | | c. social loafing | | | d. behavioral contagion | | | e. heredity | Personality appears to be a result of both hereditary and environmental factors. Heredity refers to factors determined at conception. Physical stature, facial attractiveness, gender, temperament, muscle composition and reflexes, energy level, and biological rhythms are generally considered to be either completely or substantially influenced by one's biological, physiological, and inherent psychological makeup. |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 31
Marks: 1
The ________ is a personality assessment consisting of 100-questions where respondents are classified as extraverted-introverted, sensing-intuitive, thinking-feeling, and judging-perceiving.
Choose one answer. | a. Birkman Method | The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) is the most widely used personality assessment instrument in the world. It is a 100-question personality test that asks people how they usually feel or act in particular situations. Respondents are classified as extraverted or introverted, sensing or intuitive,thinking or feeling, and judging or perceiving. | | b. Keirsey Temperament Sorter | | | c. Karolinska Scales of Personality | | | d. Taylor-Johnson Temperament Analysis | | | e. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator | |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 32
Marks: 1
________ refers to the tendency of people to draw a general impression about an individual on the basis of a single characteristic.
Choose one answer. | a. Confirmation bias | | | b. Self-serving bias | | | c. Hindsight bias | | | d. Halo effect | When we draw a general impression about an individual on the basis of a single characteristic, such as intelligence, sociability, or appearance, a halo effect is operating. A single trait is allowed to influence the overall impression of the person being judged. | | e. Randomness error | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 33
Marks: 1
MBO emphasizes goals that are ________.
Choose one answer. | a. tangible, verifiable, and measurable | Management by objectives (MBO) emphasizes participatively set goals that are tangible, verifiable, and measurable. | | b. tangible, rewarding, and assigned | | | c. inspirational, verifiable, and creative | | | d. achievable, controllable, and profitable | | | e. profitable, attainable, and self-set | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 34
Marks: 1
John Holland's personality-job fit theory presents six personality types. Which of the following is one of these six types?
Choose one answer. | a. analytic | | | b. imaginative | | | c. investigative | John Holland's personality-job fit theory presents six personality types. These types are realistic, investigative, social, conventional, enterprising, and artistic. | | d. practical | | | e. intuitive | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 35
Marks: 1
Which of the following terms best describes the tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the influence of internal factors when making judgments about the behavior of others?
Choose one answer. | a. self-fulfilling prophecy | The tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the influence of internal factors when making judgments about the behavior of others is referred to as the fundamental attribution error. | | b. bandwagon effect | | | c. fundamental attribution error | | | d. contrast effect | | | e. emotional dissonance | |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 36
Marks: 1
Individuals scoring ________ have a strong ability to adjust his or her behavior to external, situational factors and can behave differently in different situations.
Choose one answer. | a. high on self-monitoring | | | b. low on openness | | | c. high on narcissism | | | d. low on conscientiousness | | | e. low on agreeableness | Self-monitoring refers to an individual's ability to adjust his or her behavior to external, situational factors. Individuals scoring high in self-monitoring show considerable adaptability in adjusting their behavior to external situational factors. They are highly sensitive to external cues and can behave differently in different situations. |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 37
Marks: 1
Which level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs deals with satisfying one's hunger, thirst, and other bodily needs?
Choose one answer. | a. psychological | | | b. safety | | | c. physiological | Maslow hypothesized that within every human being there exists a hierarchy of five needs. The lowest, most basic needs are physiological. They include hunger, thirst, shelter, sex, and other bodily needs. | | d. esteem | | | e. social | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 38
Marks: 1
According to the expectancy theory, the performance-reward relationship is the degree to which ________.
Choose one answer. | a. the individual believes that exerting a given amount of effort will lead to performance | According to expectancy theory, the performance-reward relationship indicates the degree to which the individual believes performing at a particular level will lead to the attainment of a desired outcome. | | b. organization rewards correspond with the individual's level of effort | | | c. the individual believes performing at a particular level will lead to desired outcomes | | | d. organizational rewards satisfy an individual's personal goals or needs | | | e. organizational rewards are perceived as attractive by the individual | |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 39
Marks: 1
Which of the following is a type of response to dissatisfaction that is constructive and passive?
Choose one answer. | a. loyalty | Loyalty is considered a passive constructive response to dissatisfaction. | | b. exit | | | c. voice | | | d. neglect | | | e. reflect | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 40
Marks: 1
Which of the following series of dimensions of the job characteristics model (JCM) combine to create meaningful work?
Choose one answer. | a. skill variety, autonomy, and feedback | | | b. skill variety, autonomy, and task significance | | | c. feedback, task identity, and task significance | | | d. autonomy, task identity, and feedback | | | e. skill variety, task identity, and task significance | The first three dimensions in JCM, skill variety, task identity, and task significance, combine to create meaningful work that the incumbent will view as important, valuable, and worthwhile. |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 41
Marks: 1
McClelland's theory is based on which of the following needs?
Choose one answer. | a. achievement, power, and affiliation | McClelland's theory of needs states that the need for achievement (nAch), the need for power (nPow), and the need for affiliation (nAff) help explain motivation. | | b. control, status, and self-actualization | | | c. stability, growth, and security | | | d. hygiene, control, and security | | | e. self-actualization, stability, and safety | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 42
Marks: 1
Job design is defined as the ________.
Choose one answer. | a. degree of decision-making power with the immediate superiors | | | b. degree to which the job contributes to profit margins | | | c. degree to which the job rewards competence | | | d. way the elements in a job are organized | | | e. way the job is evaluated in terms of its relative worth to other jobs | Job design is defined as the way the elements in a job are organized. |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 43
Marks: 1
According to the two-factor theory, ________.
Choose one answer. | a. the aspects that lead to job satisfaction are separate and distinct from those that lead to job dissatisfaction | The two factor theory proposes that the factors that lead to job satisfaction are separate and distinct from those that lead to job dissatisfaction. | | b. there exists a hierarchy of needs within every human being, and as each need is satisfied, the next one becomes dominant | | | c. achievement, power, and affiliation are three important needs that help explain motivation | | | d. employees view work as being as natural as rest or play, and therefore learn to accept, and even seek, responsibility | | | e. most employees inherently dislike work and must therefore be directed or even coerced into performing it | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 44
Marks: 1
The Pygmalion effect is also called the ________ effect.
Choose one answer. | a. self-determination | | | b. pseudocertainty | The Pygmalion effect is also called the Galatea effect. | | c. halo | | | d. self-concordance | | | e. Galatea | |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 45
Marks: 1
Individuals engage in ________ because it is impossible for them to assimilate everything they see and can take in only certain stimuli.
Choose one answer. | a. selective perception | Any characteristic that makes a person, an object, or an event stand out will increase the probability we will perceive it. Since we can't observe everything going on about us, we engage in selective perception. | | b. cognitive dissonance | | | c. self-serving bias | | | d. self-fulfilling prophecy | | | e. emotional labor | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 46
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is true regarding an employee stock ownership plan (ESOP)?
Choose one answer. | a. ESOPs are also called competency-based pay plans. | | | b. There exists a strong correlation between ESOPs and employee performance. | | | c. The financial stake in the company is adequate to use ESOPs as an effective means to motivate employees. | | | d. ESOPs are effective because, like bonuses, they reward recent performance. | Under the employee stock ownership plan, employees acquire stock often at below-market prices. Research on ESOPs indicates they increase employee satisfaction. But their impact on performance is less clear. ESOPs for top management can reduce unethical behavior. | | e. Under this plan, employees acquire company shares often at below-market prices. | |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 47
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is true regarding goal-setting theory?
Choose one answer. | a. Externally generated feedback is more powerful than self-generated feedback. | People do better when they get feedback on how well they are progressing toward their goals, because it helps identify discrepancies between what they have done and what they want to do. Self-generated feedback with which employees are able to monitor their own progress is more powerful than externally generated feedback. | | b. Generalized goals produce a higher level of output as compared to specific goals. | | | c. People do better when they get feedback on how well they are progressing toward their goals. | | | d. Goal commitment is more likely when individuals have an external locus of control. | | | e. Assigned goals generate greater goal commitment in low rather than high power-distance cultures. | |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 48
Marks: 1
The theory of cognitive dissonance was proposed by ________.
Choose one answer. | a. Geert Hofstede | | | b. Daryl Bem | | | c. Leon Festinger | In the 1960s, Leon Festinger argued that attitudes follow behavior. Festinger proposed that cases of attitude following behavior illustrate the effects of cognitive dissonance, any incompatibility an individual might perceive between two or more attitudes or between behavior and attitudes. | | d. Ivan Petrovich Pavlov | | | e. Abraham Maslow | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 49
Marks: 1
________ refers to evaluative statements or judgments concerning objects, people, or events.
Choose one answer. | a. Appearance | | | b. Demeanor | | | c. Attitude | Attitudes are evaluative statements, either favorable or unfavorable, about objects, people, or events. They reflect how one feels about something. | | d. Behavior | | | e. Performance | |
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 50
Marks: 1
The investment of an employee's physical, cognitive, and emotional energies into job performance is called ________.
Choose one answer. | a. management by objectives | | | b. job analysis | | | c. vicarious modeling | | | d. self-determination | Job engagement refers to the investment of an employee's physical, cognitive, and emotional energies into job performance. | | e. job engagement | |
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.