201. Preparing issue requests
1. What methods can be used for submitting supplies? * Hand carried, mailed, or transmitted by radio, telephone, terminal, or e-mail.
2. What submission point is used to process expedite issue requests? * Expedite call-in point (delivery priorities 01–04).
3. How many copies of the AF Form 2005 are prepared for issue requests? * 2 copies
4. What methods are available for determining the next available serial number to use on an issue request? * Copy 2 of the AF Form 2005 is also used as a control register for determining the next available serial number. * An alternative method of determining the next available serial number is to use a pre- serialized AF Form 2005 instead of using the copy 2.
5. Match each function in column A with the appropriate data element or code in column B. The responses in column B may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Column A
_ a. TRIC ___ (1) Provides a means for the Materiel Management System data base to select the appropriate internal program.
_ d. Document number __ (2) A 14-digit alphanumeric number used to identify a document.
_ i. Urgency justification code (UJC). ___ (3) Used to indicate the urgency of need and justification (type of requirement).
_ e. Demand code. ___ (4) Used to indicate how the Materiel Management System accumulates demand information for stock leveling and DIFM control.
_ b. Delivery destination ___ (5) Indicates the location where property is to be delivered.
_ c. Stock number/part number ___ (6) Used to identify the item requested by the customer.
_d. Document number ___ (7) Contains a shop code used to identify the function that requested the item.
_ e. Demand code. ___ (8) Identifies a request from a contractor for items needed to support an authorized contract. _ j. Issue exception code (IEX). ___ (9) Identifies item records with unique issue conditions.
_ f. Transaction exception code TEX). ___ (10) Identifies exception conditions that require special processing procedures. _ g. System designator ___ (11) Identifies, controls, segregates, and processes selected inputs.
6. What additional information must be provided on a part number request if the part number is not known to be loaded in the system? * furnish the technical order (TO) data or other appropriate reference at the time of submission
7. What benefit can occur by challenging possibly inflated UNDs and UJCs? * Challenges can effectively reduce the number of uniform materiel movement and issue priority system (UMMIPS) violations that occur and can reduce the costs of priority requirements.
202. Management notices
1. What management notice reflects the quantity issued, killed, or due out? * I004 - MGT ISU, KILL, DUO
2. What management notice reflects due-out requisitioning action taken on an issue request? * I005 - MGT (specific phrase provided)
3. What management notice is provided for all part number requests that cannot be converted to NSNs under program control? * I007 - MGT PART NUMBER REQUEST REQUIRES EXTERNAL REVIEW
4. What management notice reflects the total base asset position of a killed request? * I023 - OTHER ASSET DATA FOLLOWS
203. Maintenance/Supply interface
1. What benefit does the CAMS/Materiel Management System interface provide maintenance personnel? * The Maintenance interface links maintenance with Materiel Management System, and provides Maintenance personnel the capability to order parts, retrieve status, cancel requirements, and review canceled requirements through remote terminals located in the work center area. 2. What activity code on an issue request identifies a CAMS document? * Activity code J is used to identify issues processed through Core Automated Maintenance System (CAMS).
3. What management notification does the Materiel Management System output to notify the CAMS system of a change in status to a maintenance due-out? * The Materiel management System uses 1SH notifications to notify the CAMS of a change in the due-out status of an item.
4. What happens when the Materiel Management System detects an error in a transaction sent by CAMS? * When the Materiel Management System software detects an error in a transaction sent by CAMS, the image is returned to the CAMS input terminal along with the applicable reject notice.
204. MICAP responsibilities
1. Who must ensure that all local resources are exhausted before submitting a MICAP requisition? * Managers at all levels (in both Maintenance and Materiel management) must exhaust every effort to satisfy these requirements.
2. Define cannibalization. * Removing a part from one end item and installing it in another.
3. What are three reasons for performing a cannibalization? * Cannibalization can be used to prevent, transfer, or terminate a MICAP condition.
4. What product is used to record cannibalizations? * Document this information on a MICAP worksheet or a locally developed form or register.
5. What TRIC is used to process a cannibalization? * Process the cannibalization using the applicable MICAP notification report (TRIC NOR) input to report the cannibalization.
6. How is the NOR processed for cannibalization action taken to preclude a MICAP? * process a NOR transaction with delete code 4 and advice code Z
7. How is a MICAP due-out established? * Establish a MICAP due-out by processing TRIC ISU with MICAP flag N and the appropriate MICAP UJC.
8. What UND codes reflect a MICAP requirement? * MICAP UND 1, J. or /.
9. What code on the MICAP report is used to identify the reason for the out-of-stock condition that made the MICAP request necessary? * The MICAP Cause code.
10. How is the MICAP cause code assigned on the MICAP report? * Under program control.
11. What information should you always be aware of regarding MICAP requirements? * Status codes on the status detail record provide you with information about your MICAP requirement.
12. What CAMS data screen is used to reconcile the maintenance status of a MICAP requirement? * 731, Equipment Status Inquiry Screen,
13. What is the purpose of a MICAP delete code? * Delete codes are used to identify the reason for termination.
14. What MICAP delete code indicates a report that was reported in error? * (DIC B9*)
205. MICAP reporting (B9*)
1. What purpose do MICAP reports (B9*) serve? * MICAP reports (DIC B9*) are used to initiate, change, or terminate a MICAP condition.
2. How does MICAP reporting take place? * MICAP reporting takes place automatically with the output of MICAP reports (DIC B9*) during on-line processing.
3. When is MICAP reporting initiated? * MICAP reporting is initiated when a due-in is established to satisfy a MICAP condition.
4. When is MICAP reporting terminated? * Termination occurs at the time of due-out release, down grade to a non-MICAP condition, or cancellation.
206. Concepts of repair cycle
1. What ERRCDs identify repair cycle assets? * (ERRCD) of XD or XF.
2. When does the repair cycle of an asset begin and end? * Begins with the item’s removal from an aircraft or end item of equipment. * Ends when the original item is either repaired, declared not-reparable-this-station (NRTS), or condemned and is turned into the LRS for turn-in processing.
3. When is a DIFM detail established? * When a repair cycle asset is issued or back-ordered as a replacement, the computer establishes a DIFM detail record.
4. DIFM status flags identify different types of DIFM details. What are the flags for each of the following DIFM details?
a. Firm. * 0
b. Memo. * 1
c. Credit. * 2
5. What are DIFM change inputs used for? * To update the status and location fields of the DIFM detail record.
6. In what quantity are DIFM items normally requested? * Normally, repair cycle items are issued in quantities of one each;
7. What must you load to the item record to allow multiple quantities of DIFM items to process? * For a multiple quantity request to process, a multiple DIFM flag indicator will have to be loaded to the item record.
8. What listing is used to perform the DIFM reconciliation? * the D23 report
207. DIFM management listings
1. What is the purpose of the D23? * Is the most important tool for monitoring status and maintaining visibility of DIFM assets
2. How is the Q04 used? * The Q04 is used to review the base in-house repair capability program.
3. What purpose does the D19 serve? * To provide a listing of AWP due-outs, due-ins, and status detail records. It also provides financial data for maintenance managers to make repair decisions.
4. What action do you take for items appearing in the D20? * Ensure all initial issues are validated with a letter of justification or exception.
208. Repair cycle turn-ins and asset flow
1. What paperwork must accompany DIFM items when they are returned to the LRS? * An AFTO Form 350, Repairable Item Processing Tag, a condition tag, and the issue (ISU) or due-out release (DOR) document.
2. How many copies of the AF Form 2005 are required for turn-in preparation if Supply Asset Tracking System (SATS) is not used to process the turn-in? * Three copies
3. What happens to ERRCD XF assets when they are turned in condemned? * A DIC A5J document is produced to transfer the item to DRMO.
209. Two level maintenance
1. What is the two level maintenance concept? * The practice of sending certain XD2 assets directly to the depot for repair, without first attempting to repair them at base level.
2. What are the benefits of the two level maintenance concept? * It reduces the number of places where assets are repaired, which in turn reduces the manpower, equipment, and spare parts required for the repair, and the dollars required to support the function.
210. Maintenance turnarounds
1. Why is it important to process TRN data? * Because it generates base stock levels and provides information to HQ AFMC from which buy, repair, and distribution decisions are made.
2. What data is updated by processing a maintenance turnaround record update? * Demand data on the item record and repair cycle data on the repair cycle record
3. What is the source of data for TRN processing? * Part II of the AFTO Form 350 from the maintenance activity.
211. Unserviceable item storage
1. How long are unserviceable assets stored? * Until disposition instructions are received
2. What is the benefit if separate storage of assets? * To prevent an unserviceable item from being issued as serviceable when it’s not.
3. What TRICs are processed once disposition instructions are received? * TRIC SHP, TRM or MSI.
212. Supply points
1. Establishing a supply point is a coordinated effort between Maintenance and the LRS. What are the functions of Maintenance in this operation? * To provide sufficient space and facilities for accommodating the supply point.
2. When can EOQ items be stocked in a supply point? * When authorized by the operations support officer.
3. What input is used to load, change, or delete a supply point detail? * TRIC FSP
4. What organization code identifies a supply point transaction? * Org Code 005
5. What TRIC is used to load the storage location on a supply point detail? * TRIC FSP
6. With what activity code, organization code, and demand code are requests for transfer submitted? * Activity Code S; Org Code 005; Demand Code N.
7. What term describes how items are issued from a supply point? * Over- the- counter
8. What TRIC is used to issue an item from a supply point detail? * TRIC MSI
9. What do you do to issue an item from a supply point detail with no replenishment action? * Use TEX code F in position 54 of the MSI request.
10. What is the purpose of the supply point serial numbered log? * To assign sequential serial numbers to the document number date field of each supply point issue. This allows multiple issues of a single DIFM item during one day’s processing.
11. How often are supply point assets reconciled? * At least semiannually.
12. What listing is used to reconcile supply point assets? * Supply Point Listing (Q13)
13. When are issues (TRIC ISU) processed during the supply point reconciliation? * When the total on-hand quantity is less than the authorized quantity.
14. How are balance discrepancies reconciled? * Using special inventory procedures.
213. War reserve material
1. List the seven types of basic expeditionary airfield resource systems. * Shelters. * Environmental control. * Power. * Waste/water. * Hygiene. * Feeding. * Airfield support.
2. What is the support period of an MRSP? * To allow the support of a weapon system or weapon support system in a deployed location for 60 days before resupply is necessary.
3. Which type of RSP is used to support an organization in-place for the first 30 days of wartime operation? * In-place readiness spares package (IRSP)
4. What record must be loaded prior to processing RSP authorization input records? * Input TRIC 1EB is used to load the serial number/control record for RSP authorizations.
5. What program is used to perform a reconciliation between XVF records and base level WRM authorizations? * The S05 program
6. What warehouse function must the storing activity provide in the care of RSP assets? * The war readiness function is
7. Within how many days upon return from a deployment must RSP be inventoried? * However MRSP will be inventoried within 10 days after returning from deployment.
8. How are issues to an MRSP processed? * processing TRIC ISU with activity code U (issue to MRSP)
9. What TRIC is used to issue assets from an MRSP? * Process TRIC MSI.
10. What action occurs if you use TEX F on an MSI transaction? * Prevents automatic replenishment.
11. What TRIC input assigns the deployment flag on the MRSP detail record? * TRIC FKD
12. What type of deployment is in effect when the host computer support base for the forward location assumes accountability? * Transfer
13. Who must make the decision to transfer MRSP accountability? * Accountability rests with the host and gaining MAJCOM.
14. What document is output to transfer the responsibility of deployed equipment to the equipment custodian on a short-term deployment? * Custody receipt transfer document
15. Upon return from a short-term deployment, what input is necessary to delete the deployed flag on equipment detail records? * Using TRIC 1ED/FME.
16. For a long-term deployment, what input transfers selected equipment items to the gaining base? * TRIC 1ET/FME.
17. What output images are produced with FME processing? * FIL, FCI, REC, ISU, FED, FCS.
18. What is the primary function of PC-ASM? * The primary function of Aircraft Sustainability Model is Logistics, and the benefit is that it allows you to “tailor” a package of spare parts to support the number of aircraft deployed.
214. Expeditionary degraded operations
1. Who is responsible to ensure quality control of transactions prior to input into the Materiel Management System? * The team chief is responsible
2. List the three responsibilities the team chief is responsible for? * Ensure listings are maintained and updated in the respective areas. * Select the method for document distribution and creation. * Ensure quality control of transactions prior to input into the Materiel Management System.
3. What TRIC is used to manually issue items from retail materiel management system kit detail records? * To manually issue items from retail materiel management system kit detail records, an issue from detail record (MSI) transaction must be prepared and processed in the Materiel Management System once the system becomes available.
4. Why must degraded operations documents be input prior to processing any new transactions on- line? * This is done to prevent rejects and incorrect data from being processed.
215. Readiness
1. Who acts as the focal point for all supply wartime readiness issues to include contingency planning, assessment, and deployment operations? * The Readiness function acts as the focal point for all materiel management war readiness issues to include contingency planning, assessment, and deployment operations.
2. What is a UTC? * Unit type codes identify each unit tasked in the OPlan or (time phased force deployment data) TPFDD.
3. What is the AEF UTC Reporting Tool? * ART is a CSAF-directed system developed to measure AEF readiness.
4. What is SORTS? * Status of Resources and Training System is a monitoring system of measured units and resources, SORTS indicates the C-level of selected resources and training status required to undertake the full mission set for which a unit was organized or designed.
216. Mobility
1. Why are extra controls necessary for small arms? * Extra controls are necessary to prevent their losses.
2. What must be annotated on all supply transaction documentation for weapons? * All documentation (i.e., receipts, issues, transfers, turn-ins, and shipments) for a weapon must be annotated with the serial number of that weapon
3. What factors determine the type of bag issued to an individual for deployment? * The type of bag issued to the individual depends on the reason for the deployment and the deployment location.
4. Which bag contains general-support items? * Type A A-bag General support
5. Which bag contains CWDE? * Type C C-bag Chemical warfare defense equipment (CWDE)
6. What concept may be used to determine the sizes required for mobility bags? * The tariff-sizing concept may be used to determine sizes required.
7. What PC program is used to manage mobility bags? * To help manage and maintain the MOBAGs, the mobility function uses the Mobility Inventory Control and Accountability System (MICAS).